Qbank

1

A test for HIV has a sensitivity of 99% and a specificity of 95%. In a population with low disease prevalence, which of the following will be true about the test?

Biostatistics

QBank

2

Which of the following statistical tests is most appropriate to compare the means of blood pressure between two independent groups?

Biostatistics

QBank

3

What type of error is represented when a null hypothesis is rejected despite being true?

Biostatistics

QBank

4

In which of the following studies can both odds ratio and relative risk be calculated?

Biostatistics

QBank

5

A study shows a statistically significant difference with a P-value of 0.03. What does this indicate?

Biostatistics

QBank

6

In a double-blind randomized control trial (RCT), what bias is most effectively minimized?

Biostatistics

QBank

7

Which study design is best to assess the incidence of a disease in an exposed vs unexposed group over time?

Biostatistics

QBank

8

What is the purpose of matching in a case-control study?

Biostatistics

QBank

9

Which measure best reflects the precision of an estimate in a clinical trial?

Biostatistics

QBank

10

What statistical measure is used to summarize data from multiple clinical trials in a systematic review?

Biostatistics

QBank

11

A clinical trial shows 10% of patients in the placebo group develop a disease, while only 2% in the treatment group do. What is the absolute risk reduction (ARR)?

Biostatistics

QBank

12

What is the number needed to treat (NNT) if the absolute risk reduction is 0.05?

Biostatistics

QBank

13

In a cohort study, disease incidence in exposed = 20%, in unexposed = 5%. What is the relative risk (RR)?

Biostatistics

QBank

14

Using a 2x2 table, if TP = 80, FP = 20, FN = 10, TN = 90, what is the positive predictive value (PPV)?

Biostatistics

QBank

15

From the same table (TP = 80, FP = 20, FN = 10, TN = 90), what is the negative predictive value (NPV)?

Biostatistics

QBank

16

A test has 95% sensitivity and 80% specificity. Which is the correct formula for likelihood ratio positive (LR+)?

Biostatistics

QBank

17

What is the purpose of calculating likelihood ratios in diagnostic testing?

Biostatistics

QBank

18

In a population with low disease prevalence, what happens to the NPV of a test?

Biostatistics

QBank

19

Which of the following reduces the false negative rate in diagnostic testing?

Biostatistics

QBank

20

What does a relative risk (RR) of 1.0 indicate?

Biostatistics

QBank

21

A diagnostic test has TP = 50, FN = 10. What is the sensitivity of this test?

Biostatistics

QBank

22

What does the infant mortality rate measure?

Biostatistics

QBank

23

The incidence of disease refers to:

Biostatistics

QBank

24

Which of the following factors increases disease prevalence?

Biostatistics

QBank

25

Which is true regarding neonatal mortality rate?

Biostatistics

QBank

26

A screening test for colon cancer is implemented and detects cancer 3 years earlier. However, mortality remains unchanged. What bias is present?

Biostatistics

QBank

27

What is the best screening test feature to rule out a disease?

Biostatistics

QBank

28

Which screening recommendation is correct for men age ≥50 with no family history?

Biostatistics

QBank

29

What is person-time used for in cohort studies?

Biostatistics

QBank

30

What is the maternal mortality rate?

Biostatistics

QBank

31

What is the most appropriate test characteristic when selecting a test for initial screening?

Biostatistics

QBank

32

Which is a limitation of using mortality rates to evaluate screening programs?

Biostatistics

QBank

33

Which study type is best for studying a rare disease?

Biostatistics

QBank

34

What type of bias occurs when patients with a disease recall exposures more clearly than healthy individuals?

Biostatistics

QBank

35

Which study type provides the strongest evidence for causality?

Biostatistics

QBank

36

A study finds an association between fishing and lung cancer. However, smoking is more common among fishermen. What is this an example of?

Biostatistics

QBank

37

What design feature helps minimize confounding in an RCT?

Biostatistics

QBank

38

What distinguishes a cohort study from a case-control study?

Biostatistics

QBank

39

Which bias arises when study subjects change behavior because they know they are being observed?

Biostatistics

QBank

40

What test is best for analyzing the relationship between a continuous dependent variable and multiple predictors?

Biostatistics

QBank

41

Which test is used to predict a binary outcome (e.g., disease vs no disease) from multiple variables?

Biostatistics

QBank

42

In a study, the effect of a new drug varies significantly between age groups. This is an example of:

Biostatistics

QBank

43

What is the main limitation of cross-sectional studies?

Biostatistics

QBank

44

Which test is best for comparing means between more than two independent groups?

Biostatistics

QBank

45

Which statistical test compares proportions between two categorical variables in a large sample?

Biostatistics

QBank

46

What type of prevention is giving tetanus vaccine to a child?

Biostatistics

QBank

47

Screening mammograms in asymptomatic women are what type of prevention?

Biostatistics

QBank

48

What level of prevention is adjusting diabetes treatment to avoid complications?

Biostatistics

QBank

49

What type of data is blood pressure measurement?

Biostatistics

QBank

50

Which is an example of ordinal data?

Biostatistics

QBank

51

What type of prevention is identifying a drug interaction before prescribing?

Biostatistics

QBank

52

Which test compares means between two paired groups (e.g., before and after intervention)?

Biostatistics

QBank

53

What does an ROC curve evaluate?

Biostatistics

QBank

54

A large sample study compares two categorical variables. Which test is appropriate?

Biostatistics

QBank

55

A team of researchers recruits 3,000 healthy adults and asks about their lifestyle habits (smoking, diet, exercise). They are then followed over 10 years to assess who develops coronary artery disease.

Biostatistics

QBank

56

A study enrolls patients diagnosed with pancreatic cancer and a control group without the disease. Researchers compare the frequency of alcohol use in both groups.

Biostatistics

QBank

57

Investigators randomly assign 500 hypertensive patients to either a new antihypertensive drug or placebo and monitor for 5 years for stroke incidence.

Biostatistics

QBank

58

Researchers review hospital records from the past 15 years to identify nurses exposed to a specific disinfectant and compare their cancer rates with those who weren’t exposed.

Biostatistics

QBank

59

A national survey asks adults about current smoking status and whether they have chronic bronchitis. No follow-up is conducted.

Biostatistics

QBank

60

A study looks at all published trials on statins and synthesizes data to report a pooled estimate of their effect on myocardial infarction prevention.

Biostatistics

QBank

61

A physician tracks outcomes in 10 patients receiving a new experimental therapy for ALS without a comparison group.

Biostatistics

QBank

62

A study investigates the association between city-level air pollution levels and asthma prevalence across countries.

Biostatistics

QBank

63

Researchers follow a group of diabetics and non-diabetics for 10 years to assess the incidence of Alzheimer's disease.

Biostatistics

QBank

64

A clinical trial tests a new antiviral using a double-blind factorial design where participants are assigned to receive either the drug, placebo, a second drug, or combination.

Biostatistics

QBank

65

Researchers begin with a large cohort of nurses. Over time, those who develop breast cancer (cases) are compared with age-matched controls within the same cohort regarding prior oral contraceptive use.

Biostatistics

QBank

1

A 59-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension presents with chest pain. ECG shows ST depressions in leads V4–V6. Troponin is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

2

A 54-year-old man presents with acute-onset chest pain radiating to the back. BP is 180/100 mm Hg in both arms. CXR shows a widened mediastinum. What is the best next diagnostic step?

Cardiology

QBank

3

A 68-year-old woman with diabetes develops sudden pulmonary edema and hypotension 4 days after an MI. Auscultation reveals a new loud holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

4

A young man collapses during a basketball game. He has a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that increases with Valsalva. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

5

A 60-year-old woman presents with dyspnea and a diastolic murmur at the apex with an opening snap. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

6

A patient has a high-pitched, early diastolic decrescendo murmur along the left sternal border and bounding peripheral pulses. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

7

A 45-year-old woman with palpitations and anxiety is found to have atrial fibrillation. She is hemodynamically stable. What is the next best step?

Cardiology

QBank

8

A 70-year-old male develops pericarditis 3 days post-MI. He complains of pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting up. ECG shows diffuse ST elevation. What is the likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

9

A young woman presents with episodic chest pain and transient ST elevation on ECG. Angiogram shows clean coronary arteries. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

10

A 60-year-old male with a history of CAD presents with fatigue and exertional dyspnea. Echo shows EF of 30%. Which medication reduces mortality?

Cardiology

QBank

11

A 70-year-old man presents with fever and chest pain 6 weeks after an MI. ECG shows diffuse ST elevations. ESR is elevated. What is the likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

12

A 65-year-old woman with untreated hypertension presents with confusion, blurry vision, and BP of 220/130 mmHg. Fundoscopy shows retinal hemorrhages. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

13

A 60-year-old man with NYHA class III heart failure is started on a new drug. Later, he presents with gynecomastia and high potassium. What drug is responsible?

Cardiology

QBank

14

A patient is found to have torsades de pointes on ECG and is pulseless. What is the next best step?

Cardiology

QBank

15

A patient on nitroprusside develops confusion and lactic acidosis during hypertensive crisis treatment. What is the most likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

16

A 72-year-old male suddenly collapses 5 days after an MI. He is pulseless with JVD and no breath sounds. ECG shows electrical alternans. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

17

A patient presents with fatigue, hypotension, and JVD after an MI. Lung fields are clear. What management is contraindicated?

Cardiology

QBank

18

A 66-year-old man develops dyspnea and a new murmur 6 days post-MI. Oxygen saturation in RV is higher than in RA. What is the likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

19

A patient is post-MI and develops sudden pulmonary edema. On exam, there's a new systolic murmur. What complication is likely?

Cardiology

QBank

20

A patient with acute pericarditis presents with hypotension and muffled heart sounds. Pulsus paradoxus is noted. What is the next best step?

Cardiology

QBank

21

A 78-year-old man presents with recurrent dizziness. ECG shows complete dissociation of P waves and QRS complexes. What is the definitive treatment?

Cardiology

QBank

22

A patient with recent MI develops a rapid, irregular rhythm with no visible P waves and variable R-R intervals. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

23

A 62-year-old male with a drug-eluting stent placed 1 month ago stops dual antiplatelet therapy. What is he at greatest risk for?

Cardiology

QBank

24

A patient with inferior MI becomes hypotensive and bradycardic. Which vessel is most likely occluded?

Cardiology

QBank

25

A 70-year-old woman is admitted for an MI. Hours later she becomes hypotensive with cold extremities, elevated JVP, and clear lungs. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

26

A 70-year-old man presents with fever and chest pain 6 weeks after an MI. ECG shows diffuse ST elevations. ESR is elevated. What is the likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

27

A 65-year-old woman with long-standing untreated hypertension presents with confusion, blurry vision, and BP of 220/130 mmHg. Fundoscopy shows retinal hemorrhages. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

28

A 60-year-old man with NYHA class III heart failure is started on a new drug. Later, he presents with gynecomastia and high potassium. What drug is responsible?

Cardiology

QBank

29

A patient is found to have torsades de pointes on ECG and is pulseless. What is the next best step?

Cardiology

QBank

30

A patient on nitroprusside develops confusion and lactic acidosis during hypertensive crisis treatment. What is the most likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

31

A 72-year-old male suddenly collapses 5 days after an MI. He is pulseless with JVD and no breath sounds. ECG shows electrical alternans. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

32

A patient presents with fatigue, hypotension, and JVD after an MI. Lung fields are clear. What management is contraindicated?

Cardiology

QBank

33

A 66-year-old man develops dyspnea and a new murmur 6 days post-MI. Oxygen saturation in RV is higher than in RA. What is the likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

34

A patient is post-MI and develops sudden pulmonary edema. On exam, there's a new systolic murmur. What complication is likely?

Cardiology

QBank

35

A patient with acute pericarditis presents with hypotension and muffled heart sounds. Pulsus paradoxus is noted. What is the next best step?

Cardiology

QBank

36

A 78-year-old man presents with recurrent dizziness. ECG shows complete dissociation of P waves and QRS complexes. What is the definitive treatment?

Cardiology

QBank

37

A patient with recent MI develops a rapid, irregular rhythm with no visible P waves and variable R-R intervals. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

38

A 62-year-old male with a drug-eluting stent placed 1 month ago stops dual antiplatelet therapy. What is he at greatest risk for?

Cardiology

QBank

39

A patient with inferior MI becomes hypotensive and bradycardic. Which vessel is most likely occluded?

Cardiology

QBank

40

A 70-year-old woman is admitted for an MI. Hours later she becomes hypotensive with cold extremities, elevated JVP, and clear lungs. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

41

A 58-year-old man presents with crushing chest pain. ECG shows ST elevations in V2–V5. BP is 80/60 mmHg. Lungs are clear. What is the best next step?

Cardiology

QBank

42

A patient with CHF and EF of 25% is started on a new medication. Days later, labs show K+ = 6.1, Cr = 2.2. Which drug is most likely responsible?

Cardiology

QBank

43

A 72-year-old woman presents with tearing chest pain radiating to the back. CXR shows widened mediastinum. What’s the gold standard for diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

44

A man develops bradycardia and AV block hours after an inferior MI. BP is stable. What is the best management?

Cardiology

QBank

45

A patient with CHF is started on digoxin. What symptom should prompt immediate concern?

Cardiology

QBank

46

A 65-year-old man with PAD reports calf pain on walking, relieved by rest. What is the best initial diagnostic test?

Cardiology

QBank

47

A patient with MI develops persistent ST elevation and a new Q wave weeks later. Echo shows aneurysmal bulge. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

48

A patient is being treated for hypertensive emergency. Nitroprusside is started. 24 hours later, he is confused and tachypneic. What’s the cause?

Cardiology

QBank

49

A patient presents with MI symptoms. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which area is affected?

Cardiology

QBank

50

A 68-year-old with CHF and EF 30% is admitted with sudden decompensation. BP is 80/60 mmHg. What’s the first step?

Cardiology

QBank

51

A 55-year-old man with known CAD presents with chest pain at rest. ECG shows no ST elevation but troponin is elevated. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

52

A patient with newly diagnosed HFrEF is started on carvedilol. What should be monitored closely during titration?

Cardiology

QBank

53

A patient presents with tearing chest pain and blood pressure discrepancy between arms. What is the next best step?

Cardiology

QBank

54

A 67-year-old male smoker with CAD develops abdominal pain and hypotension. On exam, there’s a pulsatile mass. What is the likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

55

A 72-year-old woman with AF and hypertension is assessed for anticoagulation. What tool guides this decision?

Cardiology

QBank

56

A patient with systolic heart failure is not tolerating ACE inhibitors due to cough. What is the best alternative?

Cardiology

QBank

57

A 64-year-old man presents with calf pain on exertion relieved by rest. He has an ABI of 0.6. What is the most appropriate next step?

Cardiology

QBank

58

A patient post-MI develops persistent ST elevation and a new Q wave weeks later. Echo shows aneurysmal bulge. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

59

A 55-year-old man on chronic amiodarone develops dry cough and dyspnea. CXR shows bilateral infiltrates. What is the likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

60

A 67-year-old diabetic with severe PAD cannot undergo surgery. Which drug improves walking distance?

Cardiology

QBank

61

A 32-year-old man presents with sharp chest pain worsened by lying flat and relieved by sitting up. ECG shows diffuse ST elevations and PR depressions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

62

A dialysis patient with sharp chest pain has a normal ECG and no ST changes. Pericardial friction rub is heard. What is the most likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

63

A 44-year-old man presents with hypotension, JVD, and muffled heart sounds. ECG shows electrical alternans. What is the next best step?

Cardiology

QBank

64

A 59-year-old man develops leg swelling, ascites, and fatigue. Exam reveals JVD and pericardial knock. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

65

A 26-year-old woman presents with dyspnea and dizziness. Auscultation reveals a diastolic murmur and a tumor plop. Echo shows left atrial mass. Diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

66

A 40-year-old IV drug user has fever and a new systolic murmur at the left sternal border. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

67

A 64-year-old man presents with sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. What is the next best step?

Cardiology

QBank

68

A 70-year-old patient presents with massive PE and shock. What is the definitive treatment?

Cardiology

QBank

69

A man has positive blood cultures and new murmur. He has splinter hemorrhages and Janeway lesions. What is the best next test?

Cardiology

QBank

70

A man with Strep gallolyticus endocarditis is diagnosed. What should be done next?

Cardiology

QBank

71

A 72-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is 180/110 in the right arm and 140/85 in the left. CXR reveals a widened mediastinum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

72

A 68-year-old man with known CAD presents with exertional chest pain relieved by rest. ECG is normal. What is the most appropriate initial test?

Cardiology

QBank

73

A 60-year-old man presents with a history of claudication. His ABI is 0.65. Which of the following medications is known to improve claudication symptoms and walking distance?

Cardiology

QBank

74

A 65-year-old man with AF and hypertension has a CHADS-VASc score of 3. What is the next best step in management?

Cardiology

QBank

75

A 50-year-old woman has blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg on 3 separate visits. She has no known comorbidities. What is the most appropriate next step?

Cardiology

QBank

76

A patient with HFrEF has EF 30%, sinus rhythm, and QRS duration of 160 ms. What is the most appropriate intervention?

Cardiology

QBank

77

A patient with NYHA class II HFrEF has EF of 28%. Which oral drug lowers mortality and hospitalization?

Cardiology

QBank

78

A man presents with 3 days of fever, new murmur, and Janeway lesions. He’s allergic to penicillin. What’s the best empiric treatment?

Cardiology

QBank

79

Which of the following is a major Duke criterion for infective endocarditis?

Cardiology

QBank

80

A 65-year-old man with CHF, an S3 sound, and crackles presents with new dyspnea. What is the best diagnostic test?

Cardiology

QBank

81

A patient with syncope and delta waves on ECG is suspected to have WPW. What is the next best step?

Cardiology

QBank

82

A hypertensive patient presents with asymmetric pulses and tearing chest pain. What is the best initial diagnostic test?

Cardiology

QBank

83

A man with exertional syncope has a family history of sudden cardiac death. What is the best diagnostic test?

Cardiology

QBank

84

A 65-year-old man with chronic HTN has LVH on ECG. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Cardiology

QBank

85

A patient with HFpEF is symptomatic despite diuretics. What drug improves outcomes in this condition?

Cardiology

QBank

86

A 68-year-old with stable angina has chest pain on climbing stairs. What is the next best step?

Cardiology

QBank

87

A 58-year-old man with PAD complains of worsening calf claudication. What is the next best test?

Cardiology

QBank

88

A 55-year-old man on amiodarone develops dry cough and interstitial infiltrates. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

89

A patient presents with yellow vision, fatigue, and confusion. ECG shows scooped ST segments. What drug is responsible?

Cardiology

QBank

90

What ECG pattern is typically seen in Stage 1 acute pericarditis?

Cardiology

QBank

91

A 60-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic fever presents with fatigue and dyspnea on exertion. On exam, there is a loud first heart sound and an opening snap followed by a diastolic rumble at the apex. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

92

A 72-year-old man presents with exertional syncope. On examination, he has a harsh systolic murmur best heard at the right upper sternal border, radiating to the carotids. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

93

A 45-year-old woman presents with palpitations. ECG shows a short PR interval and a delta wave. She has no symptoms now. What is the most appropriate next step?

Cardiology

QBank

94

A patient presents with tearing chest pain and unequal blood pressures in both arms. What is the best diagnostic modality in a stable patient?

Cardiology

QBank

95

A 58-year-old man with hypertension presents with tearing chest pain radiating to his back. BP is 190/120 in the right arm and 160/100 in the left. What is the most appropriate next step?

Cardiology

QBank

96

A 72-year-old woman develops sudden shortness of breath and hypotension after MI. ECG shows electrical alternans. What is the most likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

97

A patient with a history of MI presents with persistent ST elevation and deep Q waves on ECG weeks after the event. What is the likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

98

A patient develops hypoxia, hypotension, and JVD postoperatively. Lung exam is clear. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. What is the most likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

99

A 60-year-old woman with longstanding hypertension has proteinuria and elevated creatinine. Which class of drugs is most appropriate for renal protection?

Cardiology

QBank

100

A 72-year-old man collapses 5 days after an anterior MI. He is hypotensive, with muffled heart sounds and jugular venous distension. ECG shows electrical alternans. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

101

A patient with chronic stable angina is found to have an LDL of 155 mg/dL. What is the best next step in management?

Cardiology

QBank

102

A 68-year-old woman has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border that radiates to the carotids. She has delayed carotid upstroke and exertional dizziness. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

103

A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHADS-VASc score of 3. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Cardiology

QBank

104

A patient with COPD presents with lower extremity edema, ascites, and JVD. Echocardiogram shows right ventricular hypertrophy. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

105

A 65-year-old man with hypertension and CAD develops new-onset AF. What is the most important initial step?

Cardiology

QBank

106

A patient presents with a mid-diastolic murmur and opening snap at the apex. She is a recent immigrant from Southeast Asia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

107

A 66-year-old man with HFpEF is started on a new drug that reduces hospitalization and cardiovascular death. What is the drug?

Cardiology

QBank

108

A 59-year-old man presents with sudden syncope while shaving. His HR is 40 bpm and ECG shows sinus bradycardia. What is the best initial treatment?

Cardiology

QBank

109

A young woman develops torsades de pointes after starting sotalol. What is the mechanism behind this arrhythmia?

Cardiology

QBank

110

A patient with hypertension and BPH is prescribed a drug that improves urinary symptoms and lowers BP. Which drug is this?

Cardiology

QBank

111

A 70-year-old man with a history of CAD and reduced EF presents with episodes of syncope. ECG reveals sinus rhythm with a prolonged QT interval. What is the most likely arrhythmia?

Cardiology

QBank

112

A patient with recent PCI and DES placement develops chest pain 3 weeks later. ECG shows new ST elevations. Troponins are elevated. What is the likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

113

A 62-year-old woman with paroxysmal AF is started on warfarin. What is the goal INR for stroke prevention?

Cardiology

QBank

114

A 55-year-old man has left ventricular hypertrophy on ECG. What is the most likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

115

A 63-year-old woman has chronic atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. What is the most appropriate treatment to prevent stroke?

Cardiology

QBank

116

A 59-year-old man with known systolic heart failure is admitted with decompensated HF. Echo shows EF 25%. Which of the following is NOT shown to reduce mortality in HFrEF?

Cardiology

QBank

117

A 72-year-old woman with hypertension presents with episodes of syncope. Her ECG reveals sinus bradycardia with frequent pauses. What is the best long-term management?

Cardiology

QBank

118

A 66-year-old man complains of severe tearing chest pain radiating to his back. BP is 180/100 in the right arm and 140/90 in the left. What’s the most appropriate immediate management?

Cardiology

QBank

119

A 75-year-old man with known HFpEF is admitted for dyspnea and volume overload. Which of the following improves mortality in HFpEF?

Cardiology

QBank

120

A 64-year-old man is diagnosed with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. What is the best initial medical therapy to prevent syncope and sudden death?

Cardiology

QBank

121

A 70-year-old woman presents with lower extremity edema and ascites. She has JVD, hepatomegaly, and pericardial knock on auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

122

A patient with a bicuspid aortic valve is asymptomatic. What screening is recommended?

Cardiology

QBank

123

A 68-year-old woman is started on amiodarone for AF. Which of the following tests should be monitored regularly?

Cardiology

QBank

124

A man collapses while running. ECG shows ST elevations in V1–V3 with a pseudo-RBBB pattern. He has a family history of sudden death. What is the likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

125

A 60-year-old man with heart failure has a QRS duration of 165 ms and EF of 30%. Which therapy will improve his survival?

Cardiology

QBank

126

A patient on long-term doxorubicin develops fatigue and dyspnea. Echo shows EF of 25%. What is the most likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

127

A man develops hypotension and tachycardia after starting nitroprusside. Labs show metabolic acidosis and altered mental status. What is the cause?

Cardiology

QBank

128

A 70-year-old man has MI with ST elevation in II, III, aVF. 2 hours later, he becomes hypotensive with clear lungs and JVD. What is the cause?

Cardiology

QBank

129

A patient on carvedilol, lisinopril, and furosemide presents with gynecomastia and hyperkalemia. Which new drug was likely added?

Cardiology

QBank

130

A 69-year-old diabetic patient has an LDL of 195 mg/dL. What is the best next step?

Cardiology

QBank

131

A 65-year-old man presents with fatigue and mild jaundice. ECG shows AV dissociation and a heart rate of 38 bpm. He has no chest pain. What is the most appropriate management?

Cardiology

QBank

132

A 72-year-old woman presents with 3 months of worsening dyspnea and leg swelling. Echo shows EF 58% and impaired LV relaxation. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

133

A 76-year-old man with aortic stenosis is not a candidate for surgery due to multiple comorbidities. What is the best treatment?

Cardiology

QBank

134

A patient presents with hypotension, JVD, and clear lungs post-MI. Which medication is contraindicated?

Cardiology

QBank

135

A 70-year-old man with MI develops bradycardia and hypotension. What is the most likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

136

A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy is NYHA class III with EF of 30%. What device improves survival?

Cardiology

QBank

137

A 60-year-old man has persistent ST elevation and Q waves 3 weeks post-MI. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

138

Which is the best initial test for suspected constrictive pericarditis?

Cardiology

QBank

139

A 70-year-old man with AF is started on warfarin. Which test must be monitored?

Cardiology

QBank

140

A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHADS-VASc score of 1 (male). What is the best next step?

Cardiology

QBank

141

A 70-year-old woman on verapamil develops constipation. What is the most likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

142

A patient with EF 30% is found to be on diltiazem for rate control. What’s the concern?

Cardiology

QBank

143

A 60-year-old man has a loud holosystolic murmur at the apex that radiates to the axilla. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

144

A patient with STEMI is in a rural clinic with no PCI available. What is the best next step?

Cardiology

QBank

145

A patient with type 2 diabetes and LDL of 195 mg/dL is asymptomatic. What is the best step?

Cardiology

QBank

146

A young man with HOCM is prescribed digoxin. What is the risk?

Cardiology

QBank

147

Which of the following is a contraindication to beta-blocker use in acute MI?

Cardiology

QBank

148

A patient cannot exercise and has LBBB. Which test is preferred for ischemia detection?

Cardiology

QBank

149

When is pharmacologic stress testing preferred over exercise ECG?

Cardiology

QBank

150

A patient with asthma is undergoing pharmacologic stress testing. Which drug is contraindicated?

Cardiology

QBank

151

A patient presents with ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5, and V6. What is the most likely site of infarction?

Cardiology

QBank

152

A diabetic patient with an LDL of 162 mg/dL and no known ASCVD is started on atorvastatin. What drug class is atorvastatin?

Cardiology

QBank

153

A 65-year-old post-MI patient with EF 30% and NYHA class II symptoms is stable. What therapy is essential?

Cardiology

QBank

154

A 61-year-old man with 3 hours of substernal chest pain and ECG showing STEMI in II, III, aVF is in a rural clinic. PCI is 3 hours away. What is the best next step?

Cardiology

QBank

155

A 47-year-old diabetic woman has LDL of 102 mg/dL. She exercises regularly. What is the best lipid management step?

Cardiology

QBank

156

A patient with EF 28% and atrial fibrillation is on metoprolol, furosemide, and digoxin. HR is 42 bpm with dizziness. ECG shows sinus bradycardia and 1st degree AV block. What is the best step?

Cardiology

QBank

157

A 54-year-old man with no comorbidities walks 3 flights of stairs without chest pain. He has atypical chest discomfort. ECG is normal. What is the best next step?

Cardiology

QBank

158

A 70-year-old woman with HTN has calf pain after walking 2 blocks. ABI = 0.65. What is the best management?

Cardiology

QBank

159

A man with a history of DVT develops leg heaviness and skin pigmentation around the ankles. Duplex shows no DVT. Likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

160

A 68-year-old man with chest pain during exertion has transient ST depression on treadmill test and normal troponins. What’s the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

161

A 58-year-old man presents with a harsh systolic murmur at the 2nd right intercostal space that radiates to the carotids. He experiences syncope with exertion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

162

A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with systolic heart failure. She is started on enalapril. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of this drug?

Cardiology

QBank

163

A 72-year-old male presents with syncope. ECG reveals prolonged QT interval. Which medication is known to prolong the QT interval?

Cardiology

QBank

164

A 60-year-old patient is found to have persistent ST elevations and deep Q waves weeks after an MI. Echo shows an outward bulge. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

165

A 66-year-old man has JVD, hepatomegaly, and a pericardial knock on auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

166

A young man with recurrent syncope is found to have ST elevations in V1–V3 and RBBB pattern. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

167

A dialysis patient develops sharp chest pain and friction rub. ECG is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

168

A 45-year-old man with asthma is started on propranolol and develops wheezing. What is the explanation?

Cardiology

QBank

169

A patient develops nausea, confusion, and yellow vision. ECG shows atrial tachycardia with AV block. What drug is responsible?

Cardiology

QBank

170

A man with known HOCM collapses while running. What medication should be avoided?

Cardiology

QBank

171

A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with acute chest pain radiating to the back. On exam, there is a difference in systolic BP between arms. ECG is normal. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

Cardiology

QBank

172

A 70-year-old man with known CAD presents with syncope. ECG shows prolonged PR interval with intermittent dropped QRS complexes. What is the best treatment?

Cardiology

QBank

173

A 60-year-old diabetic presents with crushing chest pain. ECG shows ST elevations in V1–V4. He is hypotensive and tachycardic. What is the culprit vessel?

Cardiology

QBank

174

A patient with a recent anterior STEMI becomes hypotensive and develops a new holosystolic murmur at the apex. What is the most likely cause?

Cardiology

QBank

175

A 58-year-old male presents with substernal chest pain. Troponins are elevated but ECG is nonspecific. He has chronic kidney disease. What is the best initial management?

Cardiology

QBank

176

A 40-year-old man presents with palpitations. ECG shows short PR interval and delta waves. What is the best initial management in a stable patient?

Cardiology

QBank

177

A 60-year-old patient with heart failure has EF of 30%. Despite beta-blockers and ACEi, he remains symptomatic. What next medication reduces mortality?

Cardiology

QBank

178

A 70-year-old woman with heart failure is started on an SGLT2 inhibitor. What additional benefit does this class offer?

Cardiology

QBank

179

A young man dies suddenly during sleep. His ECG showed pseudo-RBBB and ST elevation in V1–V3. What is the diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

180

A patient presents with a wide-complex tachycardia at 180 bpm and is hemodynamically unstable. What is the next step?

Cardiology

QBank

181

A 58-year-old man with known heart failure presents with dizziness. ECG reveals a wide QRS and LBBB with QRS duration of 160 ms. EF is 30%. What is the next best step in management?

Cardiology

QBank

182

A 65-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation and CHADS-VASc score of 3 is on warfarin. She is scheduled for elective surgery. What should be done with anticoagulation?

Cardiology

QBank

183

A patient develops acute dyspnea and hypotension 1 week post-MI. He has distant heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus. ECG shows electrical alternans. Diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

184

A 72-year-old man develops acute onset chest pain. ECG shows ST elevation in leads V1–V4. What is the most likely culprit artery?

Cardiology

QBank

185

A patient with CHF is given digoxin. He now has anorexia, yellow vision, and new arrhythmias. What is the best next step?

Cardiology

QBank

186

A 55-year-old man presents with recurrent syncope. ECG shows sinus bradycardia and pauses >3 seconds. What is the next step?

Cardiology

QBank

187

A 28-year-old athlete collapses during a game. ECG shows short PR interval and delta wave. What arrhythmia is most likely?

Cardiology

QBank

188

A patient with long QT syndrome is experiencing palpitations. What is the best long-term therapy?

Cardiology

QBank

189

A patient presents with exertional dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and displaced apical impulse. EF is 25%. What medications improve mortality?

Cardiology

QBank

190

A 59-year-old man with HFrEF has EF 30% and resting HR 78 bpm despite maxed beta-blocker. What medication reduces hospitalizations?

Cardiology

QBank

191

A 28-year-old man presents with sudden onset chest pain and syncope. ECG shows diffuse ST elevations. Bedside echo shows large pericardial effusion. What is the most immediate management?

Cardiology

QBank

192

A 55-year-old smoker presents with leg pain while walking. ABI is 0.7. What is the best initial treatment to improve symptoms and function?

Cardiology

QBank

193

A 60-year-old with longstanding HTN and recent stroke has a carotid bruit. Duplex ultrasound shows 85% carotid stenosis. Best next step?

Cardiology

QBank

194

A 30-year-old woman has a crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the right upper sternal border. It radiates to the neck and increases with squatting. Diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

195

A patient with systolic heart failure (EF 28%) is already on ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and spironolactone. His BP is 120/70 and HR 75. What drug should be added?

Cardiology

QBank

196

A 62-year-old man collapses suddenly. ECG shows polymorphic VT. QT interval is prolonged. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Cardiology

QBank

197

A patient presents with a new murmur and positive blood cultures. TEE shows vegetations on a prosthetic valve. What is the most appropriate therapy?

Cardiology

QBank

198

A 55-year-old man presents with bilateral leg swelling and elevated JVP. There is a pericardial knock. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

199

A patient with endocarditis develops sudden left-sided weakness. CT head shows ischemic infarct. What is the next best step?

Cardiology

QBank

200

A 68-year-old man with ESRD presents with chest pain and pericardial friction rub. ECG is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cardiology

QBank

1

A 28-year-old woman presents with sharply demarcated, erythematous plaques with a silvery scale on her elbows and knees. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

2

A 35-year-old man presents with intensely pruritic, linear burrows in his interdigital spaces and genital region. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

3

A 22-year-old woman presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions in a “Christmas tree” distribution on the trunk. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

4

A 66-year-old man presents with painless, pearly papules with telangiectasias on the nose. Biopsy reveals palisading nuclei. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

5

A 40-year-old man presents with purple, polygonal, pruritic papules on his wrists. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

6

A diabetic patient presents with red-brown plaques with central atrophy over the shins. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

7

A 32-year-old woman has symmetrical depigmented macules on her hands and perioral region. What’s the likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

8

A 24-year-old male presents with a pustular rash on his face and back. What’s the best initial treatment for moderate acne?

Dermatology

QBank

9

A 45-year-old woman has recurrent facial flushing and telangiectasias exacerbated by spicy food and hot drinks. Diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

10

A 4-year-old boy develops honey-crusted lesions around his mouth. What is the best initial treatment?

Dermatology

QBank

11

A 58-year-old man presents with a chronic, non-healing ulcer on a sun-exposed area of his scalp. It is ulcerated and bleeds easily. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

12

A 6-year-old boy develops a circular, scaly plaque with central clearing and raised erythematous borders on the forearm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

13

A 23-year-old woman presents with painful, tender red nodules over her shins. She also has a history of recent sore throat. What is the diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

14

A 16-year-old boy has numerous open and closed comedones, papules, and pustules over his face and back. What is the pathogenesis of this condition?

Dermatology

QBank

15

A 34-year-old woman with a history of lupus develops painless oral ulcers and a malar rash after sun exposure. What type of rash is this?

Dermatology

QBank

16

A 48-year-old man presents with thickened skin and yellowish discoloration of the toenails. KOH prep reveals septate hyphae. What is the treatment of choice?

Dermatology

QBank

17

A child presents with small vesicles and honey-colored crusting on the face. Which organism is most likely responsible?

Dermatology

QBank

18

A 27-year-old woman presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base on her lips. Tzanck smear shows multinucleated giant cells. What is the likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

19

A 30-year-old woman has greasy, yellowish scales in her scalp and nasolabial folds. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

20

A patient presents with multiple cafe-au-lait spots and axillary freckling. What condition is most likely?

Dermatology

QBank

21

A newborn has a firm, blue-red vascular nodule on the face that rapidly grows in the first year. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

22

A 29-year-old man with celiac disease presents with grouped vesicles on extensor surfaces, especially elbows and knees. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

23

A 42-year-old woman presents with violaceous nodules with scale and scarring on the scalp, leading to patchy hair loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

24

A 60-year-old man presents with an irregular, pigmented lesion with asymmetry, color variation, and diameter of 8 mm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

25

A 50-year-old woman with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis develops persistent ulcers with undermined borders on her legs. Diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

26

A child presents with bright red cheeks (“slapped cheek” appearance) and a lacy rash on the trunk. What is the most likely cause?

Dermatology

QBank

27

A 31-year-old woman presents with annular, erythematous plaques with trailing scale behind the edge. Diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

28

A 35-year-old woman develops widespread epidermal detachment with mucosal involvement after starting a new anticonvulsant. Diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

29

A 75-year-old man presents with itchy, tense bullae on the lower abdomen and thighs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

30

A 19-year-old woman has hypopigmented, slightly scaly macules on her trunk. KOH prep shows “spaghetti and meatballs” appearance. What is the diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

31

A 40-year-old man presents with multiple soft, flesh-colored, pedunculated lesions in his axillae. What are these called?

Dermatology

QBank

32

A 28-year-old woman presents with chronic eczematous patches on her hands. Patch testing shows nickel sensitivity. Diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

33

A 65-year-old woman with long-standing sun exposure presents with rough, scaly patches on her face and forearms. Diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

34

A 30-year-old man has hyperpigmented, velvety plaques on the back of his neck and axillae. What is the next step in management?

Dermatology

QBank

35

A 24-year-old athlete presents with painful vesicles on the lateral edge of one finger. What is the diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

36

A 7-year-old girl has hair loss with black dots in the scalp and scaling. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

37

A 29-year-old male with history of IBD develops painful pustules that ulcerate with violaceous borders. Diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

38

A patient presents with multiple dome-shaped, umbilicated papules on the trunk. Diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

39

A 45-year-old man presents with rough, wart-like growths on his hands after working with wood. Biopsy shows koilocytosis. What is the diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

40

A newborn has a large port-wine stain over the face. What condition should be ruled out?

Dermatology

QBank

41

A 33-year-old female presents with hypopigmented macules on the back that become more visible in the sun. KOH prep shows short hyphae and spores. Best treatment?

Dermatology

QBank

42

A 21-year-old presents with target-like lesions after HSV infection. Diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

43

A child presents with well-demarcated perioral dermatitis after prolonged use of topical steroids. What is the treatment?

Dermatology

QBank

44

A 55-year-old male presents with rapid-onset multiple seborrheic keratoses. What should be ruled out?

Dermatology

QBank

45

A child presents with linear streaks of vesicles after playing in the garden. Most likely cause?

Dermatology

QBank

46

A teenage girl has acne and starts isotretinoin. What is the most important test before starting treatment?

Dermatology

QBank

47

A boy presents with hypopigmented patches on the face. There is mild scaling, no itching. Diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

48

A patient develops itchy, blistering lesions on sun-exposed skin. Biopsy shows subepidermal clefts. What is the diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

49

A woman presents with lacy white patches in the oral mucosa and violaceous skin papules. What’s the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

50

A 70-year-old presents with small red papules that bleed on scratching. What are these?

Dermatology

QBank

51

A 9-month-old infant presents with an erythematous diaper rash that spares the skin folds. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

52

A diaper rash presents as beefy red plaques with satellite lesions involving the skin folds. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

53

A teenager has comedones, pustules, and nodules. What is the best treatment for severe nodulocystic acne?

Dermatology

QBank

54

What is the most effective topical agent for comedonal acne?

Dermatology

QBank

55

A 25-year-old with psoriasis is prescribed methotrexate. What must be done before starting?

Dermatology

QBank

56

A patient has silvery scaly plaques on the elbows. What is the first-line treatment for mild psoriasis?

Dermatology

QBank

57

A man presents with multiple pearly nodules on the face with telangiectasias. What is the diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

58

A patient has a non-healing, scaly ulcerated lesion on the lower lip. What is the diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

59

What is the treatment of choice for superficial BCC on the face?

Dermatology

QBank

60

A child has erythematous, well-demarcated rash with yellow scales on the scalp and diaper area. Diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

61

A child has pruritic plaques in flexural areas and a history of asthma. Most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

62

What is the most common location of SCC with a high risk of metastasis?

Dermatology

QBank

63

Which pediatric skin condition resolves spontaneously and presents with vesicles and eosinophils on smear?

Dermatology

QBank

64

Which psoriasis treatment increases the risk of lymphoma with long-term use?

Dermatology

QBank

65

A 42-year-old woman presents with facial flushing, telangiectasias, and pustules. Which topical agent is preferred for papulopustular rosacea?

Dermatology

QBank

66

A 60-year-old fair-skinned man has an irregular dark lesion on his back. ABCDE criteria are met. What is the next step?

Dermatology

QBank

67

What staging method is used for melanoma and predicts prognosis based on tumor depth?

Dermatology

QBank

68

A 58-year-old man with a 5-year-old chronic wound over an old burn site has an ulcerated lesion. What’s the best next step?

Dermatology

QBank

69

A 70-year-old with melanoma and no nodal involvement undergoes wide excision. What is needed next?

Dermatology

QBank

70

A 40-year-old woman with rosacea and eye irritation develops blepharitis. Best treatment?

Dermatology

QBank

71

A 42-year-old woman with fair skin complains of redness and flushing of her cheeks, especially after drinking wine or exposure to sun. There are no comedones. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

72

A 25-year-old woman is being started on oral isotretinoin for severe cystic acne. Which of the following must be tested before treatment initiation?

Dermatology

QBank

73

A 7-year-old boy presents with an intensely itchy rash that worsens at night. He has linear burrows between his fingers. What is the best treatment?

Dermatology

QBank

74

A patient with multiple painful nodules and disfiguring scars at earlobe piercing sites is diagnosed with keloids. What is the most effective treatment?

Dermatology

QBank

75

A 55-year-old male presents with an asymmetrical pigmented lesion on his back. Which of the following features is most concerning for melanoma?

Dermatology

QBank

76

A 30-year-old man has itchy, red lesions on his fingers and wrists. KOH prep is negative. Lesions worsen at night. What is the next best step?

Dermatology

QBank

77

A teenage girl with severe acne has been prescribed isotretinoin. Which lab abnormality would warrant discontinuing the medication?

Dermatology

QBank

78

A patient has a brown-black sharply demarcated waxy lesion on the back. There is no change over time. What is the best next step?

Dermatology

QBank

79

A patient presents with pustules and nodules on the back and jawline refractory to doxycycline. Isotretinoin is considered. What must be stopped before initiating therapy?

Dermatology

QBank

80

A 68-year-old male has a non-healing ulcer on a sun-exposed area. It is ulcerated with rolled borders. What is the likely diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

81

Which skin cancer has the lowest metastatic potential?

Dermatology

QBank

82

Which of the following is associated with fair skin, intermittent sun exposure, and large nevi?

Dermatology

QBank

83

Which skin condition should always prompt a glucose screening test in an adult?

Dermatology

QBank

84

A patient with a non-healing burn wound develops a painful mass. What cancer must be ruled out?

Dermatology

QBank

85

What is the best way to manage recurrent skin infections in a patient with a history of MRSA?

Dermatology

QBank

86

Which acne treatment requires dual contraception and monthly pregnancy testing?

Dermatology

QBank

87

What skin condition is most associated with celiac disease?

Dermatology

QBank

88

A child presents with multiple hypopigmented macules that are ash leaf shaped. Next best step?

Dermatology

QBank

89

A farmer presents with an ulcerating nodule after rose thorn injury. What is the likely pathogen?

Dermatology

QBank

90

Which UV light is most implicated in causing skin cancer?

Dermatology

QBank

91

A 21-year-old man presents with intense nocturnal itching and linear burrows between his fingers. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Dermatology

QBank

92

A 68-year-old man in a nursing home presents with widespread crusted skin and minimal itching. What is the best treatment?

Dermatology

QBank

93

A 5-year-old boy with scabies develops pustules and honey-crusted lesions. What complication has likely occurred?

Dermatology

QBank

94

A 19-year-old woman is starting oral isotretinoin for nodulocystic acne. What test is mandatory before initiation?

Dermatology

QBank

95

What lab values must be monitored monthly in a patient on isotretinoin?

Dermatology

QBank

96

A 20-year-old woman on isotretinoin reports mood swings and sadness. What is the best course of action?

Dermatology

QBank

97

A 25-year-old develops a raised, thick, shiny scar that extends beyond the original ear piercing site. What is the diagnosis?

Dermatology

QBank

98

What is the first-line treatment for symptomatic keloids?

Dermatology

QBank

99

Which of the following features best differentiates a hypertrophic scar from a keloid?

Dermatology

QBank

100

A 33-year-old woman with a large ear keloid is concerned about recurrence after surgery. What adjunctive therapy will reduce this risk?

Dermatology

QBank

1

A 15-year-old boy presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss over the past two weeks. Blood glucose is 385 mg/dL. Ketones are positive in urine. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

QBank

2

A 55-year-old obese woman is diagnosed with type 2 DM. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic therapy?

Endocrinology

QBank

3

A patient with type 1 diabetes presents with nausea, vomiting, and Kussmaul respirations. Glucose is 450 mg/dL, and bicarbonate is 14 mEq/L. What is the next best step?

Endocrinology

QBank

4

A 45-year-old man with diabetes is found to have microalbuminuria. What is the best initial treatment?

Endocrinology

QBank

5

A diabetic patient presents with numbness and burning pain in the feet. What is the most appropriate next step?

Endocrinology

QBank

6

A 17-year-old girl with known type 1 DM is found unconscious. Her glucose is 32 mg/dL. What is the next best step in management?

Endocrinology

QBank

7

A 10-year-old boy with new-onset T1DM is started on insulin. Which insulin provides basal coverage?

Endocrinology

QBank

8

A patient with known type 1 DM presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and deep breathing. Labs show high glucose, low bicarb, and high anion gap. Which electrolyte must be carefully monitored?

Endocrinology

QBank

9

Which insulin type has the fastest onset of action?

Endocrinology

QBank

10

A patient with type 1 DM is experiencing frequent hypoglycemic episodes at night. What is the best change in insulin regimen?

Endocrinology

QBank

11

A 35-year-old man with poorly controlled type 1 DM presents with abdominal pain and fruity breath. ABG shows pH 7.12, HCO3 10. What is the most appropriate next step?

Endocrinology

QBank

12

A 22-year-old man with T1DM asks about lifestyle modifications. What advice is most important to prevent complications?

Endocrinology

QBank

13

What is the recommended HbA1c target in non-pregnant adults with diabetes?

Endocrinology

QBank

14

A patient is diagnosed with DKA. After initial fluid resuscitation, insulin is started. Serum potassium is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the next best step?

Endocrinology

QBank

15

What is the main mechanism of hyperglycemia in type 1 diabetes mellitus?

Endocrinology

QBank

16

A 70-year-old man with type 2 DM presents with confusion, dehydration, and a glucose of 950 mg/dL. Serum osmolality is elevated. There are no ketones. What is the likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

QBank

17

What is the primary difference between DKA and HHS?

Endocrinology

QBank

18

A type 1 diabetic patient plans to run a marathon. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

Endocrinology

QBank

19

A newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic asks about dietary advice. What is most important?

Endocrinology

QBank

20

A type 1 DM patient develops hypoglycemia while driving. What is the appropriate first step?

Endocrinology

QBank

21

A 12-year-old child with T1DM is hospitalized with DKA. When can subcutaneous insulin be started?

Endocrinology

QBank

22

Which of the following is the most common cause of death in diabetic ketoacidosis?

Endocrinology

QBank

23

A 40-year-old woman has HbA1c of 6.3%. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

QBank

24

A type 1 diabetic asks about sick day rules. What should be recommended?

Endocrinology

QBank

25

What is the insulin of choice in DKA management?

Endocrinology

QBank

26

What is the most common cause of death in patients with diabetes mellitus?

Endocrinology

QBank

27

A diabetic patient complains of blurred vision. Fundoscopy shows microaneurysms and hard exudates. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

QBank

28

Which test is most sensitive for early diabetic nephropathy?

Endocrinology

QBank

29

A 60-year-old diabetic man has numbness, tingling, and burning in both feet. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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30

A diabetic patient complains of early satiety and vomiting. What is the likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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31

A diabetic patient has lost foot sensation and has a painless ulcer on the plantar surface. What is the best next step?

Endocrinology

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32

What is the most effective strategy to prevent progression of diabetic retinopathy?

Endocrinology

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33

Which of the following is a manifestation of diabetic autonomic neuropathy?

Endocrinology

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34

Which long-term diabetic complication is best prevented by ACE inhibitors?

Endocrinology

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35

What is the earliest renal change seen in diabetic nephropathy?

Endocrinology

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36

How often should a diabetic patient undergo a comprehensive eye exam?

Endocrinology

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37

Which of the following is the most important screening tool for diabetic foot neuropathy?

Endocrinology

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38

A diabetic patient presents with fever, swelling, and foul-smelling discharge from a foot ulcer. What is the next best step?

Endocrinology

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39

What is the most likely cause of Charcot foot in diabetes?

Endocrinology

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40

A 65-year-old diabetic with poor vision develops a retinal detachment. What form of retinopathy is most associated?

Endocrinology

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41

Which lipid goal is most appropriate in a 55-year-old diabetic with no cardiovascular history?

Endocrinology

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42

A diabetic patient with ESRD is on dialysis. What is the most common cause of his kidney failure?

Endocrinology

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43

What structural change characterizes advanced diabetic nephropathy?

Endocrinology

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44

A diabetic patient complains of orthostatic dizziness. BP drops from 130/80 to 90/60 on standing. HR is unchanged. What is the cause?

Endocrinology

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45

A diabetic presents with sudden foot pain and deformity. Foot is warm, swollen, but pulses are intact. X-ray shows bone destruction. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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46

A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation. TSH is elevated, free T4 is low. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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47

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient regions?

Endocrinology

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48

A patient presents with heat intolerance, weight loss, palpitations, and tremors. TSH is low, free T4 is high. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

QBank

49

A 30-year-old woman has hyperthyroidism, exophthalmos, and a diffusely enlarged thyroid. Which test confirms the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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50

Which of the following is most specific for Graves disease?

Endocrinology

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51

What is the first-line treatment for Graves disease in most non-pregnant adults?

Endocrinology

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52

A 28-year-old pregnant woman with newly diagnosed Graves disease. What is the drug of choice in the first trimester?

Endocrinology

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53

A 45-year-old woman has a painless, firm thyroid nodule. TSH is normal. What is the next best step?

Endocrinology

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54

A patient has a cold thyroid nodule on RAIU scan. What is the most appropriate next step?

Endocrinology

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55

A 32-year-old woman has a thyroid nodule. TSH is low. What is the next best step?

Endocrinology

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56

A 35-year-old woman presents with a tender, enlarged thyroid and recent viral illness. Labs show elevated ESR and low TSH. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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57

Which of the following thyroid disorders presents with high fever, delirium, tachycardia, and nausea?

Endocrinology

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58

A thyroid biopsy reveals Orphan Annie eye nuclei and psammoma bodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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59

A thyroid tumor invades blood vessels and spreads hematogenously to bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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60

A 45-year-old woman with thyroid nodule has high calcitonin levels. What is the likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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61

What thyroid cancer is associated with RET proto-oncogene mutations?

Endocrinology

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62

A patient with a rock-hard, fixed thyroid and compressive symptoms has low TSH. What is the likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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63

A patient has low TSH, low T3, and low T4. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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64

A patient has an asymptomatic goiter and normal TSH. What is the most appropriate initial test?

Endocrinology

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65

A thyroid cancer patient is treated with total thyroidectomy and levothyroxine. What is the goal of TSH suppression?

Endocrinology

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66

A 68-year-old woman has TSH of 6.5 mIU/L and normal free T4. She is asymptomatic. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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67

A 30-year-old pregnant woman is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. What is the treatment of choice?

Endocrinology

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68

What thyroid hormone change is expected during normal pregnancy?

Endocrinology

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69

A patient on chronic amiodarone therapy develops fatigue and weight gain. TSH is elevated. What is the likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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70

A 60-year-old man with multinodular goiter has compressive symptoms. What is the treatment of choice?

Endocrinology

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71

Which thyroid condition has the highest risk for airway compromise?

Endocrinology

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72

What is the most sensitive marker for thyroid function screening?

Endocrinology

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73

A thyroid nodule in a patient with previous head/neck radiation has normal TSH. What is the next best step?

Endocrinology

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74

A post-thyroidectomy patient has hoarseness and difficulty speaking. What is the most likely nerve injured?

Endocrinology

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75

What is the most common presentation of thyroid cancer?

Endocrinology

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76

A 55-year-old woman is found to have elevated calcium and PTH on routine labs. She has no symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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77

What is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

Endocrinology

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78

A patient with CKD on dialysis has high PTH and high calcium. What is the most likely cause?

Endocrinology

QBank

79

Which of the following is a classic EKG finding in hypercalcemia?

Endocrinology

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80

A 45-year-old woman presents with muscle cramps and perioral numbness. Labs show low calcium and high phosphate. What is the most likely cause?

Endocrinology

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81

What is the most common cause of hypocalcemia in hospitalized adults?

Endocrinology

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82

Which vitamin is required for calcium absorption in the gut?

Endocrinology

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83

A child with vitamin D deficiency presents with bowing of legs. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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84

What lab findings are typical of vitamin D deficiency?

Endocrinology

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85

A patient has elevated PTH, high calcium, and low phosphate. What is the cause?

Endocrinology

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86

What bone disorder is caused by vitamin D deficiency in adults?

Endocrinology

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87

What is the best initial treatment for severe hypercalcemia?

Endocrinology

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88

What electrolyte abnormality increases the risk of tetany and Chvostek sign?

Endocrinology

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89

What lab abnormality is often seen with hypomagnesemia-induced hypocalcemia?

Endocrinology

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90

What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in hospitalized patients?

Endocrinology

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91

A 42-year-old woman presents with central obesity, moon face, and easy bruising. Her 24-hour urinary cortisol is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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92

Which of the following tests helps differentiate the cause of Cushing syndrome?

Endocrinology

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93

A patient with suspected Cushing disease has low ACTH and high cortisol. What is the most likely source?

Endocrinology

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94

A 25-year-old man has hyperpigmentation, fatigue, and hypotension. Labs show low sodium, high potassium, and low cortisol. What is the likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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95

What is the best initial test for adrenal insufficiency?

Endocrinology

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96

A patient has recurrent episodes of palpitations, headache, and sweating. What is the best initial test?

Endocrinology

QBank

97

What is the preoperative management for pheochromocytoma?

Endocrinology

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98

A patient with pheochromocytoma undergoes adrenalectomy. What is the most common postoperative complication?

Endocrinology

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99

A 60-year-old man has flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm. 5-HIAA in urine is elevated. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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100

Which nutrient is required for serotonin synthesis in carcinoid tumors and becomes deficient?

Endocrinology

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101

What hormone is overproduced in carcinoid tumors?

Endocrinology

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102

A 34-year-old man with hypertension is found to have adrenal mass. Plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is elevated. What is the next step?

Endocrinology

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103

A 16-year-old girl with delayed puberty and hypertension is found to have low cortisol and androgens. Which enzyme deficiency is responsible?

Endocrinology

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104

A 6-year-old boy with precocious puberty has hypertension and low renin. Labs show low cortisol and high androgens. What is the most likely enzyme deficiency?

Endocrinology

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105

A patient with Addison’s disease is brought to the ED with hypotension, abdominal pain, and vomiting. What is the best immediate management?

Endocrinology

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106

A 45-year-old patient with HTN and unexplained hypokalemia is suspected to have primary hyperaldosteronism. What lab ratio supports the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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107

A 35-year-old woman with Cushing syndrome has low ACTH and imaging shows adrenal mass. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Endocrinology

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108

A 22-year-old male with ambiguous genitalia and HTN is diagnosed with congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which form is likely?

Endocrinology

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109

Which of the following is characteristic of an adrenal incidentaloma that should be removed surgically?

Endocrinology

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110

A patient with chronic corticosteroid use abruptly stops medication. What is the most likely complication?

Endocrinology

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111

A 45-year-old man has enlarged hands, coarse facial features, and joint pain. IGF-1 is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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112

What test confirms acromegaly after elevated IGF-1 is detected?

Endocrinology

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113

What is the first-line treatment for acromegaly due to pituitary adenoma?

Endocrinology

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114

A 50-year-old woman presents with excessive thirst and urination. Labs show high sodium and low urine osmolality. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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115

A water deprivation test fails to concentrate urine, but desmopressin increases urine osmolality. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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116

What is the most common cause of central diabetes insipidus?

Endocrinology

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117

A patient with bipolar disorder develops polyuria and dilute urine unresponsive to desmopressin. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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118

A hospitalized patient is found to have hyponatremia, low serum osmolality, and inappropriately concentrated urine. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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119

What is the most appropriate initial treatment for asymptomatic SIADH-induced hyponatremia?

Endocrinology

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120

What is a potential complication of rapid correction of chronic hyponatremia?

Endocrinology

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121

A 28-year-old woman presents with galactorrhea and amenorrhea. Her serum prolactin is elevated. What is the most appropriate next step?

Endocrinology

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122

What is the first-line treatment for a prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma?

Endocrinology

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123

A patient with a pituitary macroadenoma develops fatigue, hypotension, and decreased libido. What condition is likely?

Endocrinology

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124

A boy with short stature has delayed bone age compared to chronological age. What is the most likely cause?

Endocrinology

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125

A 13-year-old boy is tall with early secondary sexual characteristics and advanced bone age. What is the most likely cause?

Endocrinology

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126

A 10-year-old girl with short stature and delayed bone age is found to have high TSH and low T4. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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127

What lab is most useful in screening for growth hormone deficiency in children?

Endocrinology

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128

What is the next step in a child with short stature, delayed bone age, and low IGF-1?

Endocrinology

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129

A child with suspected Turner syndrome has short stature and normal bone age. What is the first diagnostic test?

Endocrinology

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130

A 15-year-old girl has delayed puberty and decreased height velocity. Bone age is 11 years. What does this suggest?

Endocrinology

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131

A 52-year-old woman reports irregular periods, hot flashes, and night sweats. FSH is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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132

What is the most effective treatment for vasomotor symptoms (hot flashes) in menopause?

Endocrinology

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133

Which of the following is a contraindication to HRT in menopause?

Endocrinology

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134

A 50-year-old woman is started on HRT. What is the primary risk in women with a uterus receiving unopposed estrogen?

Endocrinology

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135

A postmenopausal woman on HRT complains of breast tenderness. What is the most likely cause?

Endocrinology

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136

What bone-related benefit does HRT provide in postmenopausal women?

Endocrinology

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137

A 47-year-old woman has menopausal symptoms but irregular menses. What is the most likely hormonal pattern?

Endocrinology

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138

A 53-year-old woman without a uterus wants HRT. What regimen is most appropriate?

Endocrinology

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139

What is the best non-hormonal therapy for vasomotor symptoms in a woman with breast cancer history?

Endocrinology

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140

A 51-year-old woman has vaginal dryness and dyspareunia post-menopause. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Endocrinology

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141

A 19-year-old male presents with small testes, gynecomastia, and tall stature. Karyotype is 47,XXY. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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142

A male athlete using anabolic steroids presents with testicular atrophy and low LH. What is the most likely mechanism?

Endocrinology

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143

A 35-year-old male has infertility and low testosterone. LH and FSH are high. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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144

Which of the following is a long-term risk of anabolic steroid abuse?

Endocrinology

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145

A female athlete develops hirsutism, deep voice, and amenorrhea. She admits to using "supplements." What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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146

What is the best test to assess bioavailable testosterone in a hypogonadal man?

Endocrinology

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147

A 17-year-old male presents with delayed puberty, low LH/FSH, and anosmia. What is the diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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148

What is a distinguishing lab pattern in secondary hypogonadism?

Endocrinology

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149

A bodybuilder using testosterone develops gynecomastia. What is the most likely mechanism?

Endocrinology

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150

A 30-year-old woman has irregular periods, acne, and hirsutism. Labs show elevated LH:FSH ratio. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Endocrinology

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151

A 45-year-old woman presents with a 2.5 cm thyroid nodule. Her TSH is normal. What is the best next step?

Endocrinology

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152

A 35-year-old woman has a thyroid nodule and low TSH. What is the next best step?

Endocrinology

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153

A 1.2 cm solid hypoechoic thyroid nodule with irregular margins is found on ultrasound. TSH is normal. What is the best next step?

Endocrinology

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154

A 0.8 cm thyroid nodule is found incidentally. It is spongiform with no suspicious features. What is the next best step?

Endocrinology

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155

A patient with a 1.8 cm thyroid nodule has an FNA showing Bethesda III (atypia of undetermined significance). What is the best next step?

Endocrinology

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156

A patient with a history of radiation exposure in childhood presents with a firm thyroid nodule. What is the best next step?

Endocrinology

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157

A thyroid nodule FNA shows papillary carcinoma. What is the next best step?

Endocrinology

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158

A 60-year-old woman has a 4 cm thyroid nodule. Ultrasound shows coarse calcifications and irregular margins. What is the best next step?

Endocrinology

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159

A 35-year-old woman has a “hot” thyroid nodule with suppressed TSH. What is the best next step?

Endocrinology

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160

A 2.5 cm isoechoic thyroid nodule has smooth margins and no calcifications. TSH is normal. What is the best next step?

Endocrinology

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1

A 4-year-old child presents with chronic mouth breathing, nasal congestion, and a hyponasal voice. Physical exam reveals adenoid facies. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

ENT

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2

A diabetic patient presents with severe otalgia and purulent discharge. On exam, granulation tissue is visible in the external auditory canal. What is the most appropriate next step?

ENT

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3

A 7-year-old presents with recurrent tonsillitis. He has had 8 episodes in the past year. What is the next best step?

ENT

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4

A patient with sleep apnea and tonsillar hypertrophy undergoes polysomnography. What is the most definitive management?

ENT

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5

A swimmer develops pain on moving the ear, with an edematous canal and pruritus. What is the likely organism?

ENT

QBank

6

A man with allergic rhinitis reports sneezing, nasal congestion, and itchy eyes. What is the pathophysiology?

ENT

QBank

7

A 30-year-old singer presents with hoarseness for 2 weeks. No fever or pain. What is the most likely cause?

ENT

QBank

8

A 65-year-old presents with recurrent sinus infections and nasal crusting. CT reveals sinus opacification. What is the best next step?

ENT

QBank

9

A diabetic man presents with fever, proptosis, and decreased vision. CT shows sinusitis with orbital extension. What is the likely cause?

ENT

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10

A 26-year-old male presents with a nosebleed after trauma. Bleeding continues despite compression. What is the best next step?

ENT

QBank

11

A 5-year-old presents with hearing loss and recurrent ear infections. Rinne test shows bone > air conduction. Weber lateralizes to the left. What is the likely diagnosis?

ENT

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12

An elderly man complains of gradual hearing loss worse in noisy environments. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

ENT

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13

A patient reports tinnitus, aural fullness, and episodic vertigo. Audiometry confirms low-frequency hearing loss. What is the most likely cause?

ENT

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14

A child with recurrent acute otitis media develops speech delay. What complication is most likely?

ENT

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15

A 1-year-old with fever, irritability, and tugging of ears has a bulging, immobile tympanic membrane. What is the next best step?

ENT

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16

A child with blue-gray TM and air-fluid level behind it has no fever. What is the diagnosis?

ENT

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17

A 40-year-old with a history of head trauma reports unilateral hearing loss. Weber test lateralizes to normal ear. Rinne is normal bilaterally. Diagnosis?

ENT

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18

A patient has recurrent vertigo episodes with nausea and progressive unilateral hearing loss. What test confirms the cause?

ENT

QBank

19

A 2-year-old with recurrent AOM needs tympanostomy tubes. What is the threshold?

ENT

QBank

20

A patient with hearing loss shows air > bone on Rinne, and Weber lateralizes to the normal side. What’s the next test?

ENT

QBank

21

A man presents with pulsatile tinnitus, hearing loss, and pearly mass behind the tympanic membrane. Likely diagnosis?

ENT

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22

A patient has Rinne: bone > air on the right ear, and Weber lateralizes to the right. What is the diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

23

Rinne: air > bone in both ears. Weber: lateralizes to the left. What is the likely diagnosis?

ENT

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24

Rinne: air > bone on left, bone > air on right. Weber lateralizes to right. What's the diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

25

A patient has symmetric Rinne tests (air > bone), and Weber is midline. Interpretation?

ENT

QBank

26

In a patient with left-sided sensorineural hearing loss, what is expected on tuning fork tests?

ENT

QBank

27

A patient has Weber test that lateralizes to the left and Rinne test shows bone > air on the left. What is the diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

28

Rinne is positive bilaterally, but Weber is louder on the right. What type of hearing loss is this?

ENT

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29

Weber localizes to the left. What are two possible explanations?

ENT

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30

Which tuning fork frequency is typically used for Rinne and Weber tests?

ENT

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31

In bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, what are the tuning fork findings?

ENT

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32

A man complains of hearing loss in the right ear. Weber test localizes to left, and Rinne test is positive bilaterally. Which ear is affected and how?

ENT

QBank

33

A 28-year-old scuba diver experiences sudden right-sided hearing loss and tinnitus after surfacing. Rinne test shows air > bone bilaterally. Weber test lateralizes to the left. What is the most likely diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

34

A patient has Rinne negative on the left and Weber lateralizes to the left. What is the most likely cause?

ENT

QBank

35

Rinne test is air > bone bilaterally. Weber is midline. What is the most likely interpretation?

ENT

QBank

36

A man with chronic otorrhea and hearing loss has Rinne: bone > air on the right, and Weber lateralizes to the right. What is the diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

37

Which finding best confirms sensorineural hearing loss on the left?

ENT

QBank

38

A 20-year-old swimmer has ear fullness and hearing loss. Rinne shows bone > air on the left, and Weber lateralizes to the left. What’s the likely cause?

ENT

QBank

39

Rinne positive on both sides. Weber test lateralizes to the left. What is the diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

40

A 65-year-old reports progressive hearing loss and difficulty in conversations. Rinne is air > bone bilaterally, and Weber is midline. Likely cause?

ENT

QBank

41

Weber lateralizes to the right. Rinne is bone > air on the right. What is the diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

42

In unilateral conductive hearing loss, which of the following combinations is expected?

ENT

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43

A 35-year-old with unilateral tinnitus and imbalance shows Rinne positive on both sides and Weber lateralizing to the left. What is the diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

44

A 56-year-old woman presents with unilateral hearing loss, imbalance, and tinnitus. MRI reveals a mass at the cerebellopontine angle. Diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

45

A 7-year-old with recent otitis media presents with fever, ear pain, and swelling behind the ear. Pinna is displaced. Most likely diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

46

A teenager presents with heavy nosebleed after a soccer injury. Bleeding continues despite compression. What is the next best step?

ENT

QBank

47

A patient presents with recurrent nosebleeds and hypertension. What site is most commonly involved in anterior epistaxis?

ENT

QBank

48

A 45-year-old teacher has persistent hoarseness for 5 weeks. No fever or pain. Next best step?

ENT

QBank

49

A child with anterior epistaxis fails initial compression. Silver nitrate cautery is applied, but bleeding resumes. What is the next step?

ENT

QBank

50

Which of the following is a major complication of prolonged nasal packing (>72 hours)?

ENT

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51

A 29-year-old singer presents with hoarseness and voice fatigue. She denies fever. Likely diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

52

Which of the following is a treatment for hoarseness caused by laryngopharyngeal reflux?

ENT

QBank

53

A patient presents with hoarseness, dry cough, globus sensation, and throat clearing. Diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

54

A patient with acoustic neuroma is most at risk for compression of which cranial nerve first?

ENT

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55

What is the primary diagnostic test for suspected acoustic neuroma?

ENT

QBank

56

A patient presents with hoarseness, difficulty swallowing, and a 30-pack-year smoking history. What is the most appropriate next step?

ENT

QBank

57

A 7-year-old presents with high fever, sore throat, and drooling. He sits leaning forward and refuses to lie down. What is the most appropriate next step?

ENT

QBank

58

A 65-year-old man presents with right-sided facial droop involving the forehead and difficulty closing his eye. No stroke symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

59

A child develops stridor, barky cough, and hoarseness. Symptoms worsen at night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

60

A 2-week-old has inspiratory stridor that improves when prone and worsens while feeding or crying. Likely cause?

ENT

QBank

61

A patient with sinusitis develops proptosis, visual loss, and ophthalmoplegia. What is the most serious possible complication?

ENT

QBank

62

A singer presents with weak, breathy voice post-thyroidectomy. What is the most likely cause?

ENT

QBank

63

A 30-year-old with asthma develops nasal polyps. What medication likely caused this?

ENT

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64

A patient with HIV presents with oral white plaques that can be scraped off, leaving erythema. What is the diagnosis?

ENT

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65

A 60-year-old smoker complains of ear pain but has a normal ear exam. He has hoarseness and weight loss. What is the next best step?

ENT

QBank

66

A child with Down syndrome snores loudly and has daytime fatigue. What is the most likely cause?

ENT

QBank

67

A 45-year-old presents with persistent foul-smelling nasal discharge and a foreign body sensation. What is the next best step?

ENT

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68

What is the first-line antibiotic for acute otitis media in children?

ENT

QBank

69

What is the best next antibiotic for otitis media if the child received amoxicillin in the past 30 days?

ENT

QBank

70

What antibiotic is used for otitis media in a child with mild penicillin allergy?

ENT

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71

Which antibiotic is first-line for malignant otitis externa in diabetic patients?

ENT

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72

What is the most common side effect of first-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine?

ENT

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73

Which antihistamine is least likely to cause drowsiness?

ENT

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74

What is a common side effect of long-term nasal decongestant use?

ENT

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75

Which antibiotic is ototoxic and can cause hearing loss?

ENT

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76

Which drug combination is commonly used for otitis externa?

ENT

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77

What is the treatment of choice for allergic rhinitis?

ENT

QBank

78

A patient uses pseudoephedrine for congestion. What side effect is most expected?

ENT

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79

What is the most common bacterial cause of acute sinusitis?

ENT

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80

What is the best initial treatment for acute bacterial sinusitis lasting >10 days with purulent discharge?

ENT

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81

Which imaging is preferred for sinusitis if complications are suspected?

ENT

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82

Which is a life-threatening complication of frontal sinusitis?

ENT

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83

What is the most common source for direct spread leading to brain abscess?

ENT

QBank

84

A patient with otitis media develops focal seizures and fever. What is the most likely complication?

ENT

QBank

85

What is the most common organism causing brain abscess from ENT infections?

ENT

QBank

86

Which of the following is NOT a complication of untreated sinusitis?

ENT

QBank

87

A diabetic with sinusitis presents with black nasal eschar. What is the likely organism?

ENT

QBank

88

A patient with sinusitis has proptosis and ophthalmoplegia. What complication is suspected?

ENT

QBank

89

What is the preferred imaging for suspected brain abscess?

ENT

QBank

90

What is the most feared complication of untreated orbital cellulitis?

ENT

QBank

91

A diabetic patient with sinusitis presents with black eschar in the nasal cavity. What is the best initial treatment?

ENT

QBank

92

A 10-year-old boy presents with purulent nasal discharge and periorbital swelling. What is the most likely diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

93

A child presents with painful swelling at the medial canthus and purulent discharge. What is the likely diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

94

Which organism most commonly causes bacterial conjunctivitis?

ENT

QBank

95

What is the drug of choice for bacterial conjunctivitis in a contact lens wearer?

ENT

QBank

96

What is the most common presentation of allergic conjunctivitis?

ENT

QBank

97

A 6-year-old has fever, sore throat, muffled voice, and is drooling. What is the most likely diagnosis?

ENT

QBank

98

Which bacteria most often causes acute epiglottitis in vaccinated children?

ENT

QBank

99

What is the first-line treatment for viral conjunctivitis?

ENT

QBank

100

What is the most common complication of untreated peritonsillar abscess?

ENT

QBank

1

A 29-year-old woman in active labor refuses a cesarean section despite evidence of fetal distress. She is alert, oriented, and fully understands the risks. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

2

A 6-year-old girl is brought in with massive blood loss after a car accident. Her parents, who are Jehovah’s Witnesses, refuse blood transfusion. What is the best course of action?

Ethics

QBank

3

Which of the following is a core ethical principle stating that a physician should “do no harm”?

Ethics

QBank

4

A physician refuses to prescribe opioids for a terminally ill patient fearing legal consequences, despite the patient’s ongoing pain. Which ethical principle is most at stake?

Ethics

QBank

5

A 45-year-old man with terminal cancer decides to withdraw from mechanical ventilation. He is alert and oriented. What is the best next step?

Ethics

QBank

6

A 60-year-old woman with advanced dementia is hospitalized with pneumonia. She has no advance directive, but her daughter insists on “no aggressive treatment.” Who is the appropriate decision-maker?

Ethics

QBank

7

A 35-year-old HIV-positive man refuses to inform his sexual partner of his diagnosis. What is the physician’s ethical obligation?

Ethics

QBank

8

A medical student is asked to perform a procedure without patient consent. What is the most ethical response?

Ethics

QBank

9

A 50-year-old woman demands antibiotics for a viral upper respiratory infection. The physician knows it’s unnecessary. What is the best response?

Ethics

QBank

10

A terminally ill patient with severe pain requests increasing doses of morphine that may shorten life. What principle justifies giving the medication?

Ethics

QBank

11

A psychiatrist suspects child abuse in a non-verbal 3-year-old but lacks concrete evidence. What is the correct next step?

Ethics

QBank

12

A 78-year-old man requests to stop dialysis, saying he feels “tired of life.” He is alert and oriented. What is the best response?

Ethics

QBank

13

A patient reveals suicidal thoughts but refuses hospitalization. What is the physician’s duty?

Ethics

QBank

14

A pharmaceutical company offers a free vacation in exchange for promoting their new drug. What is the ethical response?

Ethics

QBank

15

A 16-year-old girl seeks contraception without parental consent. What is the appropriate action?

Ethics

QBank

16

A 72-year-old patient has a DNR order but begins gasping during rounds. A new intern starts chest compressions. What is the most appropriate step?

Ethics

QBank

17

A physician notices his colleague is frequently intoxicated at work. What is the ethical obligation?

Ethics

QBank

18

In a research trial, patients are unaware they are receiving placebo instead of standard care. This violates which principle?

Ethics

QBank

19

A patient requests his complete medical records. The physician feels some information may upset him. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

20

A 40-year-old woman is diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. She refuses to inform her adult children, who are at 50% risk. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

21

A 2-year-old child presents with multiple bruises in different stages of healing. The parents say he “falls a lot.” What is the physician’s next step?

Ethics

QBank

22

A mother brings her 4-year-old son who flinches when she raises her hand. The child has a healing rib fracture. What should you do next?

Ethics

QBank

23

A 6-month-old baby presents with retinal hemorrhages and no history of trauma. What is the best next step?

Ethics

QBank

24

A 7-year-old discloses during a well-child visit that his father “hits me with a belt sometimes.” He begs the doctor not to tell. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

25

A 5-year-old is brought in with burns on both hands. The mother says he touched a hot stove. The pattern is sharply demarcated and symmetrical. Next step?

Ethics

QBank

26

A toddler presents with spiral femur fracture. The mother says he “tripped while running.” What is the best next step?

Ethics

QBank

27

Which of the following is a legally mandated responsibility when child abuse is suspected?

Ethics

QBank

28

What is the most appropriate documentation when child abuse is suspected?

Ethics

QBank

29

A 3-year-old with multiple hospital visits for “falls” now has a skull fracture. You suspect abuse. Parents are upset and threaten to sue. What should you do?

Ethics

QBank

30

A physician suspects abuse but is unsure if it meets legal criteria. What should they do?

Ethics

QBank

31

A 15-year-old girl visits for contraception and requests confidentiality. She denies abuse and is mentally sound. What is the best action?

Ethics

QBank

32

A 15-year-old girl tells you she’s sexually active and wants STI screening but doesn’t want her parents to know. What should you do?

Ethics

QBank

33

A 15-year-old girl is 6 weeks pregnant and requests termination of pregnancy. She asks you not to tell her parents. What’s the most appropriate response?

Ethics

QBank

34

A 15-year-old tells you her boyfriend is 21. She denies coercion and requests birth control. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

35

A 15-year-old reveals she’s using marijuana occasionally and asks you not to tell her parents. She is otherwise stable. What is your next step?

Ethics

QBank

36

During a visit, a 15-year-old girl confides that her stepfather watches her undress. She says nothing physical has happened. What is the physician’s duty?

Ethics

QBank

37

A 15-year-old requests to speak privately without her mother in the room. The mother insists on staying. What is the best action?

Ethics

QBank

38

A 15-year-old with depression denies suicidal ideation and is functioning well. She doesn’t want her parents informed. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

39

A 15-year-old girl tells you she had an abortion 3 months ago and hasn’t told anyone. What is your duty?

Ethics

QBank

40

A 15-year-old asks about emergency contraception after unprotected sex. She is anxious and doesn’t want parents involved. Best response?

Ethics

QBank

41

A 15-year-old who self-harms but denies suicidal thoughts wants her parents uninformed. What’s the next step?

Ethics

QBank

42

A 14-year-old refuses the HPV vaccine, but her mother insists. The teen is otherwise healthy and informed. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

43

A competent adult refuses the COVID-19 vaccine due to personal beliefs. What is the physician’s ethical response?

Ethics

QBank

44

A 16-year-old with asthma refuses the flu vaccine, but his physician believes it’s critical. What is the best course of action?

Ethics

QBank

45

A 19-year-old with schizophrenia refuses antipsychotic medication but is not a danger to self or others. What principle supports his right to refuse?

Ethics

QBank

46

A 68-year-old with dementia refuses food and says he’s “done with life.” What’s the next step?

Ethics

QBank

47

A patient with terminal cancer requests palliative sedation due to intractable suffering. What principle supports this?

Ethics

QBank

48

A palliative patient’s family demands CPR, but the patient has a valid DNR. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

49

In hospice care, a patient asks for increasing morphine despite side effects. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

50

A 70-year-old patient with advanced heart failure tells you, “I don’t want to die in the hospital.” What is the physician’s best response?

Ethics

QBank

51

A nurse administers 10 times the intended dose of a medication but catches it before giving it to the patient. What type of medical error is this?

Ethics

QBank

52

A wrong-site surgery is performed due to incorrect patient charting. What category of medical error is this?

Ethics

QBank

53

A physician misses a diagnosis despite following all guidelines and using reasonable judgment. This is considered:

Ethics

QBank

54

A patient receives the wrong medication due to poor handwriting. What is this an example of?

Ethics

QBank

55

A junior doctor realizes a dosing error made earlier in the day. What is the ethical first step?

Ethics

QBank

56

Closed-loop communication helps prevent which of the following?

Ethics

QBank

57

During a code, the team leader says, “Give 1 mg epinephrine.” The nurse remains silent. What communication tool is missing?

Ethics

QBank

58

A respiratory therapist loudly says “Patient is desaturating!” during surgery. This is an example of:

Ethics

QBank

59

A surgical tech notices the wrong instrument has been handed but hesitates to speak up. What ethical approach supports intervention?

Ethics

QBank

60

A nurse questions a medication order during rounds. The physician confirms and thanks her. This is an example of:

Ethics

QBank

61

Which of the following best promotes a culture of safety?

Ethics

QBank

62

A junior nurse catches a potential overdose but fears criticism. What should the healthcare system encourage?

Ethics

QBank

63

What is the key principle behind “time-outs” before surgery?

Ethics

QBank

64

A physician prescribes a drug with a known serious interaction overlooked in the EMR. The pharmacist catches it. What type of error management is this?

Ethics

QBank

65

Who is responsible for ensuring closed-loop communication in emergencies?

Ethics

QBank

66

A patient is newly diagnosed with HIV but refuses to inform his sexual partner. What is the physician’s most appropriate action?

Ethics

QBank

67

A patient with tuberculosis refuses treatment and continues to use public transport. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

68

A patient with schizophrenia threatens to harm his boss. He refuses to let you inform anyone. What is the correct next step?

Ethics

QBank

69

A patient requests that his cancer diagnosis not be shared with his spouse. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

70

A 17-year-old with chlamydia requests confidentiality. Her mother asks for test results. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

71

A hospitalized patient with hepatitis B works as a chef. He asks you not to inform his employer. What is your next step?

Ethics

QBank

72

A 30-year-old with COVID-19 is asked to quarantine but refuses. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

73

A patient with HIV asks to conceal his status during a surgical consent form. What is the appropriate action?

Ethics

QBank

74

A patient with multidrug-resistant TB refuses treatment. Which principle justifies public health intervention?

Ethics

QBank

75

You are caring for a psychiatric patient who threatens to shoot his roommate. What should you do next?

Ethics

QBank

76

A 55-year-old patient asks not to share his syphilis diagnosis with anyone. What is the appropriate action?

Ethics

QBank

77

A physician’s friend is hospitalized. The physician checks his chart out of curiosity. This is:

Ethics

QBank

78

A hospital employee looks up a celebrity patient’s chart. What is the most ethical action to take?

Ethics

QBank

79

A patient with severe delusions threatens to stab strangers “with God’s command.” What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

80

A 30-year-old man with meningococcal meningitis asks not to notify his coworkers. What is the best course of action?

Ethics

QBank

81

A 40-year-old man is brought to the ED unconscious after a road traffic accident. He has no ID and no relatives present. What is the most appropriate next step?

Ethics

QBank

82

A pedestrian is hit by a car and arrives unconscious, bleeding, and hypotensive. There is no family or documentation. What should the medical team do?

Ethics

QBank

83

A 35-year-old unconscious man is brought in after a motorcycle crash. He has a tattoo reading “DNR.” There is no other documentation. What should the team do?

Ethics

QBank

84

A 10-year-old child with a ruptured appendix needs emergency surgery. The parents refuse on religious grounds. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

85

A 3-year-old with pneumonia is in respiratory failure. The parents refuse intubation due to personal beliefs. What’s the best action?

Ethics

QBank

86

Parents of a child with leukemia decline chemotherapy in favor of natural remedies. The child’s prognosis is good with treatment. What should the physician do?

Ethics

QBank

87

A child in critical condition needs urgent blood transfusion. Parents refuse due to religious beliefs. What is the best next step?

Ethics

QBank

88

A 6-month-old with sepsis is deteriorating rapidly. The family insists on taking him home to treat with herbs. What is the appropriate response?

Ethics

QBank

89

In the ED, a minor with a gunshot wound is unconscious. No guardian is available. What is the appropriate next step?

Ethics

QBank

90

A 2-year-old child in cardiac arrest is brought to the ED. The parents are not reachable. What action is ethically justified?

Ethics

QBank

1

A 52-year-old man presents with burning epigastric pain that worsens with meals. He takes ibuprofen daily for osteoarthritis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

2

A 43-year-old woman presents with heartburn, regurgitation, and chronic cough worse at night. She sleeps flat. What is the next best step in management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

3

A 66-year-old man presents with fatigue and melena. He has a history of osteoarthritis treated with naproxen. Which is the most likely source of his bleeding?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

4

A 55-year-old man presents with severe retrosternal chest pain after repeated vomiting. He has subcutaneous emphysema. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

5

A 48-year-old woman presents with RUQ pain and vomiting. Ultrasound shows gallstones and gallbladder wall thickening. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

6

A 33-year-old man presents with episodic RUQ pain, jaundice, and elevated ALP. Ultrasound shows dilated intrahepatic ducts. ERCP reveals strictures and beading of the biliary tree. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

7

A 40-year-old woman with celiac disease presents with fatigue and pallor. Labs show microcytic anemia. What is the most likely cause of her anemia?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

8

A 29-year-old woman presents with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhea. Colonoscopy shows continuous inflammation from the rectum proximally. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

9

A 36-year-old man with Crohn disease presents with perianal pain and discharge. Exam reveals a tender mass near the anus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

10

A 70-year-old man has new-onset constipation, pencil-thin stools, and unintentional weight loss. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

11

A 50-year-old woman with chronic heartburn undergoes endoscopy, which shows columnar epithelium in the lower esophagus. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

12

A 68-year-old man presents with painless hematochezia and syncope. He has no abdominal pain. What is the most likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

13

A 60-year-old man presents with progressive dysphagia to solids and liquids. Barium swallow shows bird-beak narrowing of the lower esophagus. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

14

A 45-year-old woman has epigastric pain, weight loss, and enlarged left supraclavicular node. Upper endoscopy reveals gastric mass. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

15

A 28-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and weight loss. Colonoscopy reveals skip lesions and cobblestoning. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

16

A 35-year-old woman with Crohn disease presents with fever, rectal pain, and a tender perianal mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

17

A 24-year-old woman presents with recurrent abdominal discomfort relieved by defecation, bloating, and altered bowel habits. No weight loss or bleeding is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

18

A 33-year-old man with Crohn disease presents with 3 weeks of worsening diarrhea, fatigue, and iron deficiency anemia. What complication is most likely?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

19

A 39-year-old man with ulcerative colitis presents with increasing abdominal pain, fever, and distention. X-ray shows dilated colon >6 cm. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

20

A 25-year-old man with Crohn disease presents with postprandial abdominal pain and signs of obstruction. Imaging shows narrowing of small bowel. What is the most likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

21

A 21-year-old woman presents with bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and urgency. Flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals friable mucosa extending continuously from the rectum. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

22

A 30-year-old man with UC presents with weight loss and persistent symptoms despite 5-ASA therapy. What is the next best step in management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

23

A 27-year-old woman has recurrent abdominal pain, diarrhea, and extraintestinal symptoms including joint pain and eye redness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

24

A 50-year-old man with longstanding UC undergoes surveillance colonoscopy. Biopsy shows low-grade dysplasia. What is the best next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

25

A 22-year-old man presents with abdominal pain and bloating. His symptoms worsen with stress and improve after defecation. All labs are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

26

A 28-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhea, fatigue, and weight loss. Labs show low ferritin and folate. Anti-TTG IgA is positive. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

27

A patient with celiac disease starts a gluten-free diet. What else should be done in their management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

28

A 55-year-old man presents with diarrhea, weight loss, arthritis, and hyperpigmentation. Biopsy shows PAS-positive macrophages. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

29

A 45-year-old man with known Crohn disease presents with a flare: fever, crampy pain, and 5 episodes of diarrhea/day. What is the first-line treatment?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

30

A 32-year-old woman with ulcerative colitis has a mild flare (2–3 loose bloody stools/day). What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

31

A 29-year-old man with chronic diarrhea, bloating, and foul-smelling stools is found to have low B12 and steatorrhea. What is the most likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

32

A 40-year-old man with ileal resection for Crohn disease develops chronic watery diarrhea. What is the mechanism?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

33

A patient on gluten-free diet continues to have symptoms. Labs show IgA deficiency. What test should be ordered for celiac screening?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

34

A 47-year-old woman with celiac disease presents with itchy vesicles on elbows and knees. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

35

A 34-year-old man with Whipple disease is started on ceftriaxone. What should follow after IV therapy?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

36

A 43-year-old man with a history of daily alcohol use presents with sudden onset severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, and vomiting. Vitals: BP 98/65 mm Hg, HR 112 bpm. Labs: lipase 1150 U/L (normal <160), WBC 15,000/mm³. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

37

A 50-year-old obese woman presents with upper abdominal pain and vomiting. Vitals: HR 118, T 38.4°C. Labs: ALT 220 U/L, lipase 980 U/L, WBC 16,000. RUQ ultrasound shows gallstones. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

38

A 60-year-old man with chronic alcohol use presents with persistent epigastric pain and oily, foul-smelling stools. Labs show low fecal elastase and weight loss. What is the most appropriate next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

39

A 55-year-old man with recent pancreatitis now has a persistent upper abdominal mass and early satiety. CT shows a 7 cm well-circumscribed fluid collection near the pancreas. What is the best management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

40

A 64-year-old man presents with painless jaundice, weight loss, and dark urine. Labs: total bilirubin 9.2 mg/dL, ALP 480 U/L. CT abdomen shows a 4 cm mass in the head of the pancreas. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

41

A 46-year-old man is admitted for pancreatitis. On day 6, he becomes febrile and hypotensive. CT shows pancreatic necrosis with gas bubbles. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

42

A patient with MEN1 presents with multiple duodenal ulcers refractory to PPIs. Labs: gastrin 1200 pg/mL (normal <100), pH 1.5. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

43

A 70-year-old woman with pancreatic cancer has severe back pain. CT shows invasion of celiac plexus. What is the best palliative treatment?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

44

A patient with chronic pancreatitis is considering surgical options due to constant pain. CT shows a dilated pancreatic duct with calcifications. What is the preferred surgical approach?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

45

A patient is found to have an incidentally discovered 2.5 cm nonfunctioning pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor (PNET). What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

46

A 48-year-old man presents with severe upper abdominal pain radiating to the back, nausea, and vomiting. He is tachycardic and febrile. Labs: lipase 1900 U/L, calcium 7.4 mg/dL, BUN 36, and hematocrit 48%. What does this profile suggest about disease severity?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

47

A 39-year-old man with alcohol-related pancreatitis is found to have a 6.5 cm cystic lesion near the tail of pancreas. He has early satiety and mild epigastric discomfort. What is the next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

48

A 59-year-old man presents with painless jaundice, weight loss, and dark urine. Labs: total bilirubin 12.3 mg/dL, ALP 540 U/L, ALT 96 U/L. CT reveals a 3 cm mass in the head of the pancreas with no vascular invasion. What is the best next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

49

A 64-year-old man with a recent episode of severe acute pancreatitis now has a fever and leukocytosis. CT shows a necrotic pancreatic collection with gas bubbles. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

50

A 34-year-old woman presents with episodic upper abdominal pain after fatty meals. Ultrasound shows gallstones without ductal dilation or gallbladder wall thickening. LFTs are normal. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

51

A 53-year-old man with acute pancreatitis develops hypoxia on day 3 of hospitalization. Chest X-ray shows bilateral infiltrates. ABG: pO₂ 58 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

52

A 61-year-old man with chronic pancreatitis has worsening pain and a 4 cm calcified mass in the pancreatic head. CA 19-9 is elevated. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

53

A 29-year-old man develops Cullen and Grey-Turner signs 2 days after acute pancreatitis. BP is 85/60 mm Hg. What is the most likely complication?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

54

A 44-year-old woman with gallstones presents with RUQ pain, jaundice, and fever. Labs: WBC 18,000, bilirubin 6.2, ALP 460. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

55

A 30-year-old man with necrotizing pancreatitis develops persistent fever and leukocytosis despite antibiotics. CT shows a walled-off fluid collection. What is the best treatment?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

56

A 52-year-old man with pancreatic cancer is not a surgical candidate. He has biliary obstruction and pruritus. What is the best palliative step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

57

A 38-year-old woman presents with episodic RUQ pain after eating greasy foods. Ultrasound shows gallstones without wall thickening or pericholecystic fluid. Labs are normal. What is the most appropriate management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

58

A 72-year-old diabetic man presents with abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. RUQ US shows gas in the gallbladder wall. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

59

A 65-year-old woman presents with fever, RUQ pain, and jaundice. BP is 88/60, and she’s confused. Labs: WBC 20,000, TBili 8.5. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

60

A 44-year-old woman with jaundice and epigastric pain is found to have a dilated CBD on ultrasound but no stones visualized. What is the best next test?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

61

A 50-year-old man with prior cholecystectomy presents with RUQ pain and dyspepsia. US shows no stones. Labs normal. What is the next best test?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

62

A 71-year-old woman has SBO, pneumobilia, and a gallstone seen on imaging. She has no history of surgery. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

63

A 56-year-old woman undergoing routine US is found to have a porcelain gallbladder. She is asymptomatic. What is the best management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

64

A 60-year-old woman has a 1.2 cm gallbladder polyp incidentally found on US. She has no symptoms. What is the next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

65

A 46-year-old man presents with RUQ pain and fever. Labs show WBC 16,000, normal bilirubin and ALP. US shows gallbladder wall thickening and pericholecystic fluid. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

66

A 64-year-old critically ill ICU patient develops fever, leukocytosis, and RUQ tenderness. US shows distended gallbladder without stones. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

67

A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive fatigue, jaundice, and intense pruritus. Labs: ALP 620 U/L, positive antimitochondrial antibody (AMA), total cholesterol 290 mg/dL. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

68

A 33-year-old man with ulcerative colitis presents with pruritus and fatigue. Labs: ALP 700 U/L, p-ANCA positive. MRCP shows beading of intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

69

A 56-year-old man has episodic RUQ pain, jaundice, and dark urine. US shows a dilated common bile duct but no visible stones. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

70

A 62-year-old man with chronic hemolytic anemia develops black gallstones. What is the most likely composition of these stones?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

71

A 65-year-old man with a history of liver fluke infection presents with obstructive jaundice. Imaging reveals intrahepatic duct dilation and a mass in the bile duct. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

72

A 42-year-old woman has fatigue, dry eyes, and elevated ALP. ANA is positive, but AMA is negative. What is the next best test?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

73

A 29-year-old man with PSC is found to have elevated ALP and weight loss. Imaging shows focal intrahepatic ductal narrowing. What is the next step to evaluate for cholangiocarcinoma?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

74

A 47-year-old woman has chronic fatigue, hyperpigmentation, and xanthelasma. Labs show elevated ALP, high cholesterol, and positive AMA. What is the pathophysiology?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

75

A 49-year-old man has obstructive jaundice. ALP and GGT are elevated. Direct bilirubin is 5.5 mg/dL. ALT/AST mildly elevated. What is the most likely enzyme pattern?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

76

A 36-year-old woman with PBC presents with bone pain. DEXA scan reveals low bone mineral density. What is the cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

77

A patient with longstanding PSC develops progressive jaundice, pruritus, and weight loss. CA 19-9 is elevated. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

78

A 58-year-old man presents with hematemesis. He has a history of cirrhosis and alcohol use. BP 88/50, HR 120 bpm. What is the first step in management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

79

A 66-year-old man with cirrhosis presents with hematemesis and is diagnosed with esophageal varices. What medication should be initiated immediately?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

80

A 50-year-old man with history of vomiting presents with hematemesis. Endoscopy shows a linear mucosal tear at the gastroesophageal junction. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

81

A 61-year-old man presents with painless hematemesis. Endoscopy reveals tortuous veins in the lower esophagus. What is the most definitive treatment to prevent recurrence?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

82

A 64-year-old man presents with melena and lightheadedness. Labs: Hb 7.2 g/dL, BUN/Cr ratio >30. What is the most likely source?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

83

A patient with duodenal ulcer bleeding undergoes endoscopy. What endoscopic method is most effective for hemostasis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

84

A 62-year-old woman presents with hematemesis and abdominal pain. Endoscopy shows a large ulcer on the posterior duodenal wall. What is the most likely complication?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

85

A 70-year-old woman has painless brisk upper GI bleeding. Endoscopy reveals an isolated bleeding arteriole with no ulcer. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

86

A 63-year-old man has GI bleeding and is on warfarin. INR is 4.5. What is the best initial management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

87

A 55-year-old man presents with hematemesis. Endoscopy shows esophageal varices. Despite octreotide and ligation, bleeding persists. What is the next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

88

A 62-year-old man with cirrhosis presents with weight loss and early satiety. Labs show AFP 550 ng/mL. Imaging reveals a 3 cm liver mass with arterial enhancement and venous washout. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

89

A 32-year-old woman on OCPs is found to have a 6 cm liver mass on ultrasound. CT shows arterial enhancement without central scar. What is the best management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

90

A 55-year-old man with HCV-related cirrhosis presents with confusion and asterixis. Labs: NH₃ 110 µmol/L. What is the first-line treatment?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

91

A 60-year-old cirrhotic patient develops tense ascites. Na is 130 mEq/L. What is the best initial therapy?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

92

A 57-year-old man with cirrhosis is admitted with fever and worsening abdominal pain. Paracentesis shows PMNs >250. What is the next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

93

A patient with HCV-related cirrhosis has negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBs, and positive anti-HBc. What should be done next?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

94

A 48-year-old man from India presents with RUQ pain and fever. Imaging shows a 5 cm liver abscess. Serology is positive for Entamoeba histolytica. What is the treatment?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

95

A 62-year-old man with chronic HBV infection has HBsAg+, HBeAg−, HBV DNA <2000 IU/mL, and normal ALT. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

96

A 55-year-old man has cirrhosis and new-onset thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. What is the likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

97

A 44-year-old man with alcohol-related cirrhosis has massive hematemesis. After stabilization, what drug prevents rebleeding?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

98

A 61-year-old man with HCV cirrhosis presents with confusion. Serum Na 126 mEq/L, NH₃ 88 µmol/L. What is the pathophysiology of his altered sensorium?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

99

A 40-year-old IV drug user has positive anti-HCV antibody. What is the next best test?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

100

A cirrhotic patient undergoing routine screening has a 2.1 cm liver lesion with arterial enhancement and venous washout on MRI. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

101

A 29-year-old woman presents with RUQ pain. She has been taking combined oral contraceptives for 6 years. Imaging reveals a 7 cm hypervascular liver lesion without a central scar. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

102

A 34-year-old woman with a known 6 cm hepatic adenoma suddenly develops severe RUQ pain and hypotension. What is the most likely complication?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

103

A 45-year-old man suffers a motor vehicle accident. He is hemodynamically stable. FAST exam reveals a grade II liver laceration. What is the most appropriate next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

104

A 32-year-old man is admitted after blunt abdominal trauma. He becomes hypotensive and CT reveals a grade V liver laceration with active contrast extravasation. What is the next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

105

A 56-year-old woman presents with RUQ pain and fever. Imaging reveals a liver abscess. She also reports chronic sleep deprivation due to shift work. Which immune mechanism is most affected?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

106

A 48-year-old man with NAFLD and irregular sleep has elevated ALT and fasting insulin. What lifestyle factor most contributes to his liver dysfunction?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

107

A 36-year-old woman reports frequent nighttime awakenings and chronic fatigue. Labs show ALT 72, AST 68. Ultrasound shows hepatic steatosis. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

108

A 50-year-old man presents with RUQ pain and is found to have a 4 cm hepatic lesion. Biopsy shows focal nodular hyperplasia. What is the most likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

109

A 37-year-old female with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) has been on high-dose estrogen therapy. Imaging reveals a 5.2 cm liver lesion. What is the most appropriate next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

110

A 46-year-old male with a history of alcohol use presents with abdominal trauma after a fall. He is hypotensive and has abdominal distension. FAST is positive for intraperitoneal fluid. What is the next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

111

A 59-year-old man with cirrhosis presents with fatigue and early satiety. Exam shows splenomegaly. Labs: Hb 10.5 g/dL, WBC 3,000/mm³, platelets 65,000/mm³. What is the most likely cause of his cytopenias?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

112

A 64-year-old man with alcohol-related cirrhosis develops increasing abdominal girth and dyspnea. Paracentesis reveals straw-colored ascitic fluid, SAAG 1.6, total protein 1.0 g/dL. What is the underlying mechanism?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

113

A 48-year-old woman with decompensated cirrhosis presents with progressive ascites despite maximum-dose diuretics. What is the next best treatment?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

114

A 53-year-old man with cirrhosis is admitted with confusion. CT reveals a new portosystemic shunt. What complication of TIPS is likely occurring?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

115

A 58-year-old man with portal hypertension has an upper GI bleed. After stabilization, what medication is used to prevent recurrent bleeding?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

116

A 46-year-old man has abdominal pain and melena. CT shows thrombosis of the portal vein. What is the most common cause in a non-cirrhotic patient?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

117

A cirrhotic patient with ascites is found to have platelet count of 62,000/mm³. INR is 1.6. He requires endoscopy. What explains his mild thrombocytopenia?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

118

A patient with portal hypertension presents with shortness of breath. ABG shows PaO₂ 65 mmHg. Contrast echo reveals intrapulmonary shunt. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

119

A 39-year-old woman with chronic liver disease has caput medusae and rectal varices but no esophageal varices. What is the best explanation?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

120

A 67-year-old man with cirrhosis develops progressive kidney dysfunction and low urine sodium despite hydration. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

121

A 68-year-old man presents with weight loss, early satiety, and abdominal pain. Upper endoscopy reveals a large ulcerated mass on the lesser curvature of the stomach. Biopsy shows poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

122

A 72-year-old woman with unintentional weight loss and melena is found to have a gastric mass with central ulceration. Histology reveals spindle cells positive for c-KIT. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

123

A 45-year-old man with a history of H. pylori presents with dyspepsia and fatigue. Endoscopy reveals thickened gastric folds and biopsy confirms MALT lymphoma. What is the best initial treatment?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

124

A 58-year-old man with a duodenal ulcer develops sudden severe abdominal pain. Exam reveals a rigid abdomen. What is the most likely complication?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

125

A 49-year-old man presents with diarrhea and multiple ulcers in the duodenum and jejunum. Gastrin level is 1600 pg/mL, and secretin stimulation increases it further. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

126

A 30-hour-old infant born to a mother with polyhydramnios presents with bilious vomiting. X-ray shows a “double bubble” sign. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

127

A 64-year-old woman presents with early satiety, weight loss, and a palpable supraclavicular lymph node. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

128

A 52-year-old man presents with early satiety and vomiting undigested food. On exam, succussion splash is noted. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

129

A 55-year-old woman is incidentally found to have a 2.5 cm gastric subepithelial lesion. EUS shows a hypoechoic mass from the muscularis propria. What is the best next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

130

A 34-year-old woman with gastrinoma undergoes surgery. What lab value would confirm successful resection?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

131

A 29-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhea and abdominal pain. CT shows a large duodenal mass. Biopsy shows mucin-producing adenocarcinoma. What is the most likely risk factor?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

132

A 67-year-old man with iron-deficiency anemia undergoes colonoscopy. A friable, exophytic mass is found in the ascending colon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

133

A 62-year-old man is diagnosed with colon cancer. Pathology reveals a villous adenoma. What does this imply?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

134

A 58-year-old woman has left lower quadrant pain and fever. CT scan shows sigmoid wall thickening and fat stranding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

135

A patient with diverticulitis is found to have pneumaturia. What is the most likely complication?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

136

A 79-year-old man with chronic constipation presents with abdominal distention and pain. X-ray shows massively dilated sigmoid colon with “coffee bean” sign. Diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

137

A patient with prior terminal ileum resection develops chronic diarrhea and megaloblastic anemia. What is the likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

138

A 30-year-old woman with ileal Crohn disease has frequent watery diarrhea. She denies blood. What nutrient is most likely deficient?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

139

A 45-year-old man presents with sudden severe abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea after vigorous exercise. Colonoscopy shows pale mucosa in the splenic flexure. Diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

140

A 55-year-old man with left-sided colon cancer undergoes resection. Pathology shows tumor invading through the muscularis propria and 3/18 lymph nodes involved. What is the stage?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

141

A 65-year-old man has change in stool caliber and blood-streaked stools. He has no family history. What is the first diagnostic step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

142

A patient with longstanding UC has a 1.2 cm flat polyp with villous features on colonoscopy. What is the recommended follow-up?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

143

A 70-year-old man with colon cancer presents with right upper quadrant pain. LFTs show elevated ALP and AST. What is the most likely site of metastasis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

144

A 60-year-old man has chronic diarrhea, flushing, and wheezing. Labs show elevated 5-HIAA. Diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

145

A 52-year-old woman with prior abdominal surgery presents with vomiting, abdominal distension, and no bowel movements. X-ray shows air-fluid levels. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

146

A 47-year-old man with no family history of colon cancer presents for routine screening. He is asymptomatic. What is the most appropriate screening recommendation for this patient?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

147

A 13-year-old boy presents with perioral pigmentation and a family history of GI polyps. Endoscopy reveals hamartomatous polyps. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

148

A 15-year-old boy presents with frequent rectal bleeding and anemia. Endoscopy shows >5 colorectal polyps and additional gastric polyps. What syndrome is most likely?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

149

A 21-year-old woman undergoes colonoscopy showing >100 adenomatous polyps. She has a positive APC gene mutation. What is the next best step in management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

150

A 19-year-old male with a history of colorectal polyps develops a cerebellar mass and seizures. His brother was diagnosed with FAP. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

151

A 62-year-old woman presents with chronic watery diarrhea. Colonoscopy is normal. Biopsy shows a thickened subepithelial collagen band. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

152

A 38-year-old woman with ulcerative colitis presents with fever, tachycardia, and abdominal distension. Imaging shows colonic dilation >7 cm. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

153

Which of the following features favors Crohn disease over ulcerative colitis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

154

A 75-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease develops progressive abdominal distension and constipation. CT shows massive colonic dilation without mechanical obstruction. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

155

A 60-year-old patient presents with painless GI bleeding. Colonoscopy reveals a bleeding lesion in the cecum without ulceration. Most likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

156

A 42-year-old man presents with diarrhea and crampy pain. Colonoscopy shows cobblestoning and skip lesions. Biopsy confirms transmural inflammation. Diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

157

A patient with long-standing ulcerative colitis is undergoing surveillance. Which finding would warrant colectomy?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

158

A 30-year-old man with Crohn disease presents with an enterocutaneous fistula. What is the best next step in treatment?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

159

A 66-year-old woman on PPIs develops new-onset diarrhea. Colonoscopy reveals normal mucosa. Biopsy shows lymphocytic infiltration. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

160

A patient with ulcerative colitis has fever, tachycardia, and a tender, distended abdomen. What is contraindicated?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

161

A 35-year-old woman presents with painless rectal bleeding during bowel movements. No external mass is seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

162

A 28-year-old man presents with severe rectal pain and a tender perianal lump. On exam, a bluish swelling is seen. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

163

A 48-year-old man has prolapsing hemorrhoids that require manual reduction. What grade is assigned to these hemorrhoids?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

164

A patient with grade IV internal hemorrhoids and persistent bleeding has failed rubber band ligation. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

165

A 40-year-old woman with internal hemorrhoids presents with occasional rectal bleeding. What is the first-line therapy?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

166

A 29-year-old patient with a thrombosed external hemorrhoid presents within 48 hours of symptom onset. What is the best treatment?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

167

A patient complains of rectal itching and discomfort. On exam, internal hemorrhoids are noted. What medication may offer symptom relief?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

168

A 66-year-old man with severe COPD presents with large, irreducible external hemorrhoids. What is a major risk during surgery?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

169

What is the most common complication of rubber band ligation for hemorrhoids?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

170

A patient with internal hemorrhoids reports sudden prolapse that cannot be reduced. What is the grade?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

171

Which of the following best describes the blood supply to internal hemorrhoids?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

172

A 65-year-old woman complains of a protruding rectal mass with concentric mucosal rings that worsen with straining. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

173

A 32-year-old man complains of intense rectal pain during and after defecation. On exam, a linear tear at the posterior midline of the anal canal is noted. Diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

174

A 38-year-old woman presents with purulent perianal drainage and pain. Exam shows an external opening with discharge. Most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

175

A man undergoing pelvic radiation for prostate cancer develops chronic rectal bleeding and tenesmus. What is the likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

176

A 72-year-old man presents with tenesmus, rectal bleeding, and weight loss. What is the most appropriate initial test?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

177

A patient is diagnosed with rectal adenocarcinoma. What factors determine tumor staging?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

178

A 28-year-old woman presents with recurrent rectal pain unrelated to defecation. Exam is normal. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

179

A 70-year-old man with prior surgery presents with sudden right lower quadrant pain and distention. CT shows cecal volvulus. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

180

A 55-year-old man has tenesmus and bright red blood per rectum. DRE shows a firm lesion. What investigation confirms diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

181

A 42-year-old patient with Crohn disease has a perirectal ulcer and mucopurulent discharge. What is the complication?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

182

A 60-year-old patient has chronic radiation proctitis with persistent bleeding. Which treatment is most appropriate?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

183

A 42-year-old woman with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS-D) takes loperamide for diarrhea. What is its mechanism of action?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

184

A 28-year-old woman is taking ondansetron for chemotherapy-induced nausea. She reports new-onset constipation and a headache. What is the likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

185

A 66-year-old man is given metoclopramide for diabetic gastroparesis. He develops restlessness and facial twitching. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

186

A 55-year-old man with cirrhosis is given lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. What is its effect on ammonia?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

187

A 38-year-old man with motion sickness is prescribed scopolamine. What is its mechanism of action?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

188

A 65-year-old woman with IBS is taking diphenoxylate-atropine. Why is atropine added?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

189

What side effect is shared by most dopamine antagonist antiemetics like metoclopramide and prochlorperazine?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

190

A patient with chemotherapy-induced nausea is treated with aprepitant. What receptor does this drug block?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

191

Which antiemetic drug class carries the highest risk of QT prolongation?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

192

A 70-year-old woman with Parkinson’s disease has nausea. Which antiemetic is most likely to worsen her symptoms?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

193

A 50-year-old man with traveler's diarrhea asks for symptomatic relief. Which of the following is contraindicated if he has a fever and bloody stools?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

194

A 58-year-old man presents with sudden severe epigastric pain. On exam, his abdomen is rigid with guarding. Upright chest X-ray shows free air under the diaphragm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

195

What is the best initial diagnostic step in suspected perforated peptic ulcer in a stable patient?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

196

A patient with a known duodenal ulcer presents with sudden severe pain and a rigid abdomen. What is the best initial management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

197

A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain. Physical exam is unremarkable. What should you suspect?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

198

What is the gold standard for diagnosing acute mesenteric ischemia?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

199

Which of the following best describes the classic clinical presentation of acute mesenteric ischemia?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

200

A patient with confirmed mesenteric ischemia has peritonitis and signs of sepsis. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

201

A 60-year-old man with dysphagia undergoes a barium swallow that reveals “bird beak” narrowing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

202

Which of the following is a key feature differentiating postoperative ileus from small bowel obstruction?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

203

A 45-year-old woman has postprandial RUQ pain. Ultrasound shows gallstones. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

204

Which type of gallstone is most commonly associated with chronic hemolytic anemia?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

205

A patient presents with fever, RUQ pain, and jaundice. What is this triad called?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

206

What is the definitive treatment for acute suppurative cholangitis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

207

A 73-year-old woman presents with signs of SBO and pneumobilia. What is the likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

208

What imaging finding supports diagnosis of post-cholecystectomy syndrome?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

209

A 60-year-old man presents with pruritus, jaundice, and clay-colored stools. CA 19-9 is elevated. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

210

What is the preferred diagnostic method to confirm cholangiocarcinoma?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

211

A 48-year-old obese man presents with retrosternal burning after meals, worsened by lying down. He reports a sour taste in his mouth in the mornings and occasional chronic cough. What is the most appropriate initial step in management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

212

A 54-year-old man with chronic GERD undergoes endoscopy for new-onset dysphagia. Biopsy reveals columnar epithelium in the distal esophagus. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

213

A 65-year-old woman presents with coffee-ground emesis and melena. BP is 90/60 mmHg, and HR is 110 bpm. What is the most immediate next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

214

A 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol use presents with vomiting and blood-streaked emesis after an episode of binge drinking. Vitals are stable. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

215

A 40-year-old woman has burning epigastric pain relieved by meals. She denies NSAID use. A urea breath test is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

216

A 35-year-old woman complains of foul-smelling, bulky stools and chronic fatigue. She recently lost 6 kg. On testing, her TTG-IgA is positive. What is the next best step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

217

A 25-year-old woman reports abdominal bloating, intermittent constipation, and diarrhea. Her symptoms worsen with stress. All labs and stool studies are normal. What is the diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

218

A 50-year-old man with a long history of NSAID use presents with persistent epigastric pain and black tarry stools. Endoscopy shows a large gastric ulcer. What is the best next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

219

A 38-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for chronic upper abdominal pain. Endoscopy shows multiple ulcers in the duodenum and jejunum. Serum gastrin is elevated. Diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

220

A 62-year-old man presents with weight loss, persistent dyspepsia, and new-onset iron deficiency anemia. He is a smoker with a high-salt diet. What is the best next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

221

A 41-year-old woman complains of diarrhea, bloating, and fatigue. She follows a gluten-free diet. Her anti-TTG IgA is now negative, but symptoms persist. What is the best next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

222

A 26-year-old man presents with intermittent dysphagia to solids and chest discomfort. He reports seasonal allergies and asthma. He recently had an episode of food impaction requiring endoscopic removal. Upper endoscopy reveals concentric rings and longitudinal furrows in the esophagus. What is the most appropriate next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

223

A 72-year-old woman with a history of cirrhosis presents with hematemesis and melena. BP is 88/54 mmHg, HR 110 bpm. Labs show hemoglobin 7.5 g/dL and INR 2.3. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

224

A 63-year-old smoker reports 3 months of epigastric pain radiating to the back, unintentional weight loss, and dark urine. Exam reveals jaundice and a palpable, non-tender gallbladder. What is the best initial diagnostic test?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

225

A 45-year-old man with ulcerative colitis presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Labs show elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin. MRCP reveals multifocal bile duct strictures and “beading” appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

226

A 51-year-old woman with systemic sclerosis reports worsening heartburn and difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. Manometry shows absent esophageal peristalsis and decreased LES pressure. What is the likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

227

A 70-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation develops sudden, severe abdominal pain. She is afebrile and her abdomen is soft with minimal tenderness. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

228

A 33-year-old woman presents with foul-smelling, bulky stools and chronic fatigue. Labs show microcytic anemia. Anti-tTG IgA is elevated. Duodenal biopsy shows villous atrophy. What additional test is needed before starting gluten-free diet?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

229

A 58-year-old man with alcohol-related cirrhosis presents with abdominal distension. Ascitic tap reveals SAAG 1.7 and protein 1.2 g/dL. What is the underlying pathophysiology?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

230

A 40-year-old man presents with dull RUQ pain and mild jaundice 3 weeks after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. LFTs show elevated ALP and direct bilirubin. What is the most likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

231

A 72-year-old man with vascular disease presents with crampy abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea after hypotension during dialysis. CT shows segmental colonic wall thickening. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

233

A 45-year-old woman presents 5 days after abdominal surgery with nausea, abdominal distension, and absent bowel movements. Abdominal X-ray shows gas throughout small and large bowel, including the rectum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

234

A 55-year-old woman complains of dysphagia to solids. She has fatigue, pallor, and smooth tongue. Labs show Hb 9 g/dL and MCV 70 fL. Barium swallow shows a thin, shelf-like projection in the cervical esophagus. What syndrome is most likely?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

235

A 60-year-old man with GERD presents with progressive dysphagia to solids and now to liquids. He has a 15-pound weight loss over 2 months. Barium swallow shows a long, irregular narrowing of the distal esophagus. What is the most appropriate next step?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

236

A 39-year-old man presents with cramping abdominal pain, vomiting, and no flatus for 24 hours. On exam: distension, high-pitched bowel sounds. X-ray shows multiple air-fluid levels and dilated loops of small intestine with a stepladder pattern. What is the likely cause?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

237

A 64-year-old man with a history of alcohol use presents with hematemesis and hypotension. Labs: Hb 6.5 g/dL, INR 2.0, Platelets 75,000. What should be administered along with fluids and blood transfusion?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

238

A 58-year-old woman presents with episodic postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, and fear of eating. Duplex ultrasound reveals >70% stenosis of the superior mesenteric artery. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

239

A 45-year-old man presents with vomiting and chest pain after binge drinking. He is febrile, with crepitus on palpation of the neck. Chest X-ray shows mediastinal air. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

240

A 70-year-old man with constipation and abdominal pain presents with tympanic distension and no bowel movement for 3 days. CT shows a massively dilated sigmoid colon with a "coffee bean" shape. What is the likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

241

A 50-year-old man presents with progressive dysphagia and weight loss. Barium swallow shows a dilated esophagus with a smooth, bird-beak narrowing at the gastroesophageal junction. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gastrointestinal

QBank

1

A 24-year-old man presents to the ER after a motorcycle accident. He is hypotensive, tachycardic, and has cool, clammy extremities. Which type of shock is most likely?

General Surgery

QBank

2

A 60-year-old man with history of CAD undergoes a colectomy. On post-op day 2, he becomes hypotensive and shows decreased urine output. His extremities are warm and flushed. What is the likely cause?

General Surgery

QBank

3

A trauma patient is found to have flat neck veins, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds. Which condition should be suspected?

General Surgery

QBank

4

In a trauma patient, which of the following is the most reliable indicator of adequate perfusion?

General Surgery

QBank

5

A 34-year-old man is involved in a car crash. FAST scan reveals free fluid in Morrison’s pouch. What is the next best step?

General Surgery

QBank

6

A trauma patient has absent breath sounds on the left and tracheal deviation to the right. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

General Surgery

QBank

7

A patient with multiple long bone fractures post-MVA develops sudden dyspnea and confusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

8

Which of the following fluids is most appropriate for initial resuscitation in hypovolemic shock?

General Surgery

QBank

9

A 20-year-old male with abdominal stab wound is alert and hemodynamically stable. FAST is negative. What is the next step?

General Surgery

QBank

10

A patient presents after burn injury. What is the best method to assess fluid requirement?

General Surgery

QBank

11

What is the first step in the management of airway burns?

General Surgery

QBank

12

Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen after massive transfusion?

General Surgery

QBank

13

Which of the following is a contraindication to primary closure of a wound?

General Surgery

QBank

14

What is the Parkland formula for initial fluid resuscitation in burns?

General Surgery

QBank

15

A stab wound in the “box” area of the chest requires which management approach?

General Surgery

QBank

16

A 23-year-old man presents with crampy abdominal pain, weight loss, and non-bloody diarrhea. Colonoscopy shows skip lesions and transmural inflammation. What is the diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

17

A 60-year-old woman presents with episodic left lower quadrant pain and fever. CT shows colonic wall thickening and pericolic fat stranding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

18

Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgery in ulcerative colitis?

General Surgery

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19

A 22-year-old woman presents with recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and relief with defecation. No weight loss or bleeding. Most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

20

A 70-year-old man presents with painless GI bleeding. Colonoscopy reveals multiple colonic outpouchings with no inflammation. Most likely cause?

General Surgery

QBank

21

A 28-year-old man presents with second-degree burns covering 30% of his body surface area. What is the best initial management step?

General Surgery

QBank

22

A burn patient has facial burns, singed nasal hairs, and soot in sputum. What is the next best step?

General Surgery

QBank

23

Which type of intubation is contraindicated in patients with suspected basilar skull fracture?

General Surgery

QBank

24

What is the recommended airway procedure if conventional intubation fails in a patient with airway obstruction?

General Surgery

QBank

25

Which clinical finding warrants immediate intubation in a burn patient?

General Surgery

QBank

26

Which neck zone contains the carotid arteries, jugular veins, and vagus nerve, and has the highest risk of vascular injury?

General Surgery

QBank

27

A 25-year-old man has a gunshot wound just above the clavicle. Which neck zone is involved?

General Surgery

QBank

28

What is the immediate next step in a hemodynamically unstable patient with a penetrating neck injury and expanding hematoma?

General Surgery

QBank

29

Which of the following is the most feared complication of total thyroidectomy?

General Surgery

QBank

30

A patient develops tingling around the mouth and carpal spasms post-thyroidectomy. What is the likely cause?

General Surgery

QBank

31

Which Bethesda category suggests the highest risk of malignancy requiring surgical intervention?

General Surgery

QBank

32

What is the best next step after a FNA shows follicular neoplasm (Bethesda IV)?

General Surgery

QBank

33

A 35-year-old has a firm thyroid nodule with hoarseness. What is the next best investigation?

General Surgery

QBank

34

Which thyroid cancer spreads via hematogenous route?

General Surgery

QBank

35

Which type of thyroid cancer is associated with MEN2 and elevated calcitonin?

General Surgery

QBank

36

What is the initial management of an incidentally found 1.5 cm thyroid nodule with normal TSH and no symptoms?

General Surgery

QBank

37

What is the most likely thyroid malignancy found in a patient with psammoma bodies and Orphan Annie nuclei?

General Surgery

QBank

38

A patient post-total thyroidectomy develops prolonged QT on ECG. Which complication is responsible?

General Surgery

QBank

39

A 52-year-old woman has a firm, irregular breast mass. Biopsy shows estrogen and progesterone receptor positivity. What is the appropriate adjuvant therapy?

General Surgery

QBank

40

Which treatment is indicated for a HER2-positive breast cancer patient after surgery?

General Surgery

QBank

41

What is the first step in evaluating a palpable breast mass in a 45-year-old woman?

General Surgery

QBank

42

A 60-year-old woman with breast cancer and positive axillary lymph nodes undergoes breast-conserving surgery. What else should be done?

General Surgery

QBank

43

Which breast cancer subtype does not respond to hormone or HER2-targeted therapy?

General Surgery

QBank

44

A 48-year-old woman has inflammatory breast cancer. What clinical finding supports this diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

45

What is the most common site of distant metastasis in breast cancer?

General Surgery

QBank

46

A patient with a BRCA1 mutation should be counseled for which preventive measure?

General Surgery

QBank

47

What distinguishes Paget disease of the breast from dermatitis?

General Surgery

QBank

48

A 45-year-old woman undergoes sentinel lymph node biopsy. What is the purpose of this procedure?

General Surgery

QBank

49

Which side effect is associated with long-term tamoxifen therapy?

General Surgery

QBank

50

A 28-year-old woman presents with a painless, mobile, well-circumscribed breast mass that fluctuates with her menstrual cycle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

51

A 32-year-old woman presents with a tender, cystic breast mass. Aspiration yields clear fluid and relieves the pain. What is the next best step?

General Surgery

QBank

52

A 45-year-old woman presents with a firm, immobile breast mass and peau d’orange skin changes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

53

A 55-year-old woman presents with a hard, irregular, non-tender breast mass. Mammogram shows a spiculated lesion. What is the most appropriate next step?

General Surgery

QBank

54

A 36-year-old woman presents with bloody nipple discharge. No mass is palpable. What is the most likely cause?

General Surgery

QBank

55

A 40-year-old woman has a breast mass with coarse calcifications on imaging. She recalls minor trauma weeks ago. What is the likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

56

What imaging is preferred for a 25-year-old woman with a new palpable breast mass?

General Surgery

QBank

57

A 30-year-old woman presents with bilateral breast pain and cordlike thickening. Symptoms worsen premenstrually. What is the diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

58

What is the recommended follow-up after aspiration of a breast cyst with clear fluid and resolution of the mass?

General Surgery

QBank

59

A 50-year-old woman has a hard, fixed breast mass with bloody nipple discharge and axillary lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

60

Which of the following breast masses is associated with a "leaf-like" pattern on histology?

General Surgery

QBank

61

A 22-year-old presents with periumbilical pain that migrates to the right lower quadrant. CT confirms appendicitis. What is the next best step?

General Surgery

QBank

62

What is the preferred management of a periappendiceal abscess diagnosed on CT?

General Surgery

QBank

63

A 60-year-old man with colon cancer is found to have a large bowel obstruction. What is the definitive treatment?

General Surgery

QBank

64

A 45-year-old female has LLQ pain and fever. CT shows colonic wall thickening and fat stranding. What is the initial treatment?

General Surgery

QBank

65

What is the preferred surgical procedure for complicated diverticulitis with perforation?

General Surgery

QBank

66

A patient presents with crampy pain, vomiting, and high-pitched bowel sounds. X-ray shows multiple air-fluid levels. Diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

67

What is the treatment for complete small bowel obstruction with signs of ischemia?

General Surgery

QBank

68

A 65-year-old man presents with sudden severe abdominal pain out of proportion to exam. Suspected diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

69

What is the surgical treatment of choice for mesenteric ischemia due to embolism?

General Surgery

QBank

70

A patient with a history of bariatric surgery presents with palpitations and diarrhea after eating. What is the likely cause?

General Surgery

QBank

71

What is the most common long-term nutritional deficiency after Roux-en-Y gastric bypass?

General Surgery

QBank

72

What is the indication for bariatric surgery in a patient with BMI 37?

General Surgery

QBank

73

An elderly man presents with a bulge in his groin. On exam, the hernia is medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type is it?

General Surgery

QBank

74

A newborn boy has a reducible groin mass that descends into the scrotum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

75

A 68-year-old woman presents with a painful groin mass below the inguinal ligament. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

76

Which hernia type is associated with the highest risk of strangulation?

General Surgery

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77

A 55-year-old man has a hernia at the site of a previous midline laparotomy. What type is it?

General Surgery

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78

What defines a strangulated hernia?

General Surgery

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79

A 65-year-old man presents with an asymptomatic direct inguinal hernia. What is the preferred management?

General Surgery

QBank

80

Which hernia protrudes through Hesselbach’s triangle?

General Surgery

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81

A 35-year-old woman with obesity has a midline epigastric bulge on coughing. Diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

82

A 40-year-old obese man has a reducible umbilical hernia. What’s the next step?

General Surgery

QBank

83

A 59-year-old with a paraesophageal hiatal hernia presents with postprandial chest discomfort and vomiting. What is the treatment?

General Surgery

QBank

84

A 69-year-old male with a known history of a reducible inguinal hernia presents with sudden onset of intense groin pain, abdominal distension, nausea, and vomiting. The bulge in his right groin is now tender, erythematous, and irreducible. His vitals show fever and tachycardia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

General Surgery

QBank

85

A 55-year-old obese woman presents to the ER with abdominal pain, distension, and inability to pass flatus for 24 hours. She has a known history of a femoral hernia. On exam, the hernia is firm, tender, and non-reducible. CT shows small bowel loops within the femoral canal with proximal dilation and air-fluid levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

86

A 40-year-old man presents with 6 hours of increasing groin pain and nausea. He has a longstanding right inguinal hernia. On exam, the mass is tense, tender, and irreducible. There is no overlying erythema. Bowel sounds are hyperactive, and vitals are stable. What is the best next step?

General Surgery

QBank

87

A 76-year-old man with a large ventral hernia presents with confusion, hypotension, fever, and generalized abdominal tenderness. His hernia is now dusky, tense, and extremely painful. What is the most likely complication?

General Surgery

QBank

88

A 60-year-old woman presents with acute worsening of a known incisional hernia. She reports severe, constant pain and vomiting. The hernia is irreducible, tender, and erythematous. What is the most important initial management?

General Surgery

QBank

89

A 30-year-old woman with a known umbilical hernia presents with sharp pain at the site and vomiting. The hernia is irreducible but not tender or erythematous. She has no fever. Labs are normal. What is the most likely status of the hernia?

General Surgery

QBank

90

A 45-year-old man with chronic COPD presents with sudden, severe left groin pain after a coughing fit. On exam, there is a new, tense, non-reducible groin mass and guarding. He is hypotensive and febrile. What is the best immediate action?

General Surgery

QBank

91

A 78-year-old woman with dementia is brought in with vomiting, abdominal distension, and a painful bulge in the groin. Her vitals show hypotension and tachycardia. The hernia is irreducible and discolored. Labs reveal leukocytosis and elevated lactate. What is the most likely cause?

General Surgery

QBank

92

A patient with known large inguinal hernia develops progressive abdominal distension, absent bowel sounds, and diffuse tenderness. The hernia is non-reducible, but not erythematous. What investigation will confirm strangulation?

General Surgery

QBank

93

A 38-year-old male with no surgical history presents with colicky pain, vomiting, and a right-sided groin mass. The mass is tender and irreducible. Imaging confirms SBO. What is the most likely underlying cause?

General Surgery

QBank

94

A 52-year-old man with a history of heavy lifting presents with abdominal pain, nausea, and an irreducible periumbilical bulge. He is afebrile, hemodynamically stable, and labs are unremarkable. What is the best next step?

General Surgery

QBank

95

A 68-year-old man with uncontrolled hypertension presents with sudden-onset severe abdominal and back pain. On exam, he is pale, diaphoretic, hypotensive (BP 80/50), and tachycardic. Abdominal palpation reveals a pulsatile mass. What is the next best step?

General Surgery

QBank

96

A 24-year-old man is brought to the trauma bay after a stab wound to the abdomen. He is hypotensive and has rebound tenderness and guarding. What is the best immediate step?

General Surgery

QBank

97

A 33-year-old female is in the ER with epigastric pain after forceful vomiting. She is tachycardic and febrile. CXR shows air in the mediastinum and left pleural effusion. What is the diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

98

A 70-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation presents with sudden severe abdominal pain but minimal tenderness on exam. She has lactic acidosis and elevated WBCs. What is the next best test?

General Surgery

QBank

99

A 62-year-old man is brought in with blunt chest trauma after a car accident. He is hypotensive, with muffled heart sounds and distended neck veins. FAST shows pericardial fluid. What is the immediate management?

General Surgery

QBank

100

A 26-year-old male presents with decreased breath sounds, hyperresonance on the right, and hypotension after a fall. What is the immediate intervention?

General Surgery

QBank

101

A 61-year-old male presents after falling onto a metal rod that remains impaled in his abdomen. He is awake and hemodynamically stable. What should be done in the ER?

General Surgery

QBank

102

A 58-year-old woman presents with acute LLQ pain, fever, and leukocytosis. CT shows pericolonic fat stranding and no perforation. What is the first-line treatment?

General Surgery

QBank

103

A trauma patient becomes hypotensive with absent breath sounds after chest tube placement. Output from the tube is 1.8 liters of blood. What should you do next?

General Surgery

QBank

104

A 45-year-old woman presents with severe RUQ pain, fever, jaundice, and hypotension. Labs show high WBCs and bilirubin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

105

A 52-year-old woman with peptic ulcer disease presents with sudden severe abdominal pain. She is lying still, has board-like abdomen, and free air under the diaphragm on x-ray. What is the diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

106

A 65-year-old man undergoes carotid endarterectomy. Six hours later, the surgical drain fills with bright red blood. He is alert and hemodynamically stable. What type of hemorrhage is most likely?

General Surgery

QBank

107

During a thyroidectomy, brisk bleeding occurs from a transected vessel. Surgeons achieve control using ligation. What type of hemorrhage was this?

General Surgery

QBank

108

A 58-year-old post-op patient develops sudden hypotension, tachycardia, and a rapidly expanding neck hematoma 8 hours after thyroid surgery. What is the best immediate step?

General Surgery

QBank

109

A patient presents 7 days after hernia repair with fever and bright red bleeding from the wound. The site is infected. What type of hemorrhage is this?

General Surgery

QBank

110

A 34-year-old man post-colectomy has persistent drain output of dark blood, no hemodynamic instability. Hb is stable. What is the most appropriate action?

General Surgery

QBank

111

A trauma patient opens eyes to pain, uses inappropriate words, and withdraws from pain. What is his GCS score?

General Surgery

QBank

112

A 72-year-old male after CABG develops hypotension and chest drain output of 600 mL/hr. BP is dropping despite fluids. Next best step?

General Surgery

QBank

113

A 48-year-old woman has spontaneous bruising and post-op bleeding. PT and PTT are elevated. Platelet count is normal. Diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

114

A patient has difficulty speaking and obeying commands post-head trauma. His eyes open only to command, speech is confused, and he localizes pain. GCS?

General Surgery

QBank

115

GCS score at which airway protection is generally required?

General Surgery

QBank

116

A surgical patient develops new bleeding around IV lines and mucosal surfaces. Labs: low platelets, prolonged PT/PTT, elevated D-dimer. What is the diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

117

A 56-year-old man develops fever on postoperative day 1 after an open cholecystectomy. His chest is clear and oxygenation is normal. What is the most likely cause?

General Surgery

QBank

118

A 65-year-old woman develops fever on POD 4. She has suprapubic tenderness and was catheterized during surgery. Most likely cause?

General Surgery

QBank

119

A post-op patient has fever on POD 6. The wound appears red and tender with some discharge. What is the best next step?

General Surgery

QBank

120

A 52-year-old man becomes hypotensive after colectomy. CVP is low, extremities are cold. Labs show elevated lactate. What is the most likely type of shock?

General Surgery

QBank

121

A patient presents with high fever, hypotension, warm extremities, and high-output shock after surgery. What is the most likely cause?

General Surgery

QBank

122

Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is most commonly seen after nasogastric suction?

General Surgery

QBank

123

A patient post-surgery presents with peaked T waves and muscle weakness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

124

What is the first treatment step for severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes?

General Surgery

QBank

125

Which lab abnormality can prevent correction of hypokalemia?

General Surgery

QBank

126

A 60-year-old male has fever, tachycardia, and incisional erythema on POD 7. Labs show elevated WBCs and lactate. Diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

127

A patient develops confusion, tremors, and muscle cramps after TURP surgery. Labs: Na+ 118. What is the most likely complication?

General Surgery

QBank

128

A postoperative patient is lethargic and bradycardic. ECG shows prolonged PR interval and wide QRS. What electrolyte abnormality is likely?

General Surgery

QBank

129

A 68-year-old man develops confusion, hypotension, and elevated lactate after surgery. Blood pressure remains low despite fluid resuscitation. What diagnosis is most likely?

General Surgery

QBank

130

Which of the following is part of the SIRS criteria?

General Surgery

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131

A patient receives a unit of packed RBCs and 30 minutes later develops fever, chills, and flank pain. Hemoglobinuria is noted. What is the likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

132

A transfusion recipient develops fever, chills, and rigors 2 hours after the transfusion. No hemolysis is seen. Diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

133

A patient with IgA deficiency develops hypotension and respiratory distress during transfusion. Most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

134

What is the best way to prevent febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions?

General Surgery

QBank

135

A patient develops acute dyspnea and pulmonary infiltrates on CXR within 6 hours of a blood transfusion. No signs of heart failure. Most likely cause?

General Surgery

QBank

136

Which of the following transfusion reactions is most associated with high fever, hypotension, and flank pain during transfusion?

General Surgery

QBank

137

What are the clinical criteria for diagnosing sepsis according to qSOFA?

General Surgery

QBank

138

A 65-year-old postoperative patient is bedridden following hip surgery. What is the most appropriate DVT prophylaxis?

General Surgery

QBank

139

Which of the following is NOT a component of Virchow’s triad?

General Surgery

QBank

140

A 73-year-old male develops unilateral leg swelling and tenderness post-op. Wells score is 3. Next best step?

General Surgery

QBank

141

Which of the following is an indication for total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

General Surgery

QBank

142

A patient on TPN develops confusion and muscle weakness after nutrition restart. Labs: ↓ phosphate, ↓ Mg, ↓ K+. Diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

143

What is the most common complication of TPN?

General Surgery

QBank

144

A patient on long-term TPN develops elevated LFTs. Which complication is most likely?

General Surgery

QBank

145

What is the most effective strategy for DVT prevention post-surgery?

General Surgery

QBank

146

A surgical patient has TPN stopped suddenly. They become confused and diaphoretic. What’s the next step?

General Surgery

QBank

147

Which macronutrient in TPN is most likely to cause metabolic acidosis if overused?

General Surgery

QBank

148

What is the minimum number of kcal/kg/day needed for a hospitalized surgical patient under stress?

General Surgery

QBank

149

Which of the following phases occurs first in wound healing?

General Surgery

QBank

150

Which of the following factors most impairs wound healing?

General Surgery

QBank

151

Which vitamin deficiency is classically associated with poor wound healing and gum bleeding?

General Surgery

QBank

152

A surgical patient is found to have non-healing ulcers and hair loss. Which micronutrient deficiency is most likely?

General Surgery

QBank

153

A 70-kg adult requires how much daily maintenance fluid (approximate)?

General Surgery

QBank

154

Which IV fluid is considered isotonic and commonly used for resuscitation?

General Surgery

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155

Which fluid is best to use for a patient with burns or pancreatitis who needs fluid resuscitation?

General Surgery

QBank

156

What electrolyte abnormality is most expected with excessive normal saline infusion?

General Surgery

QBank

157

A dehydrated surgical patient is started on IV fluids. Urine output is <0.5 mL/kg/hr. What is the next best step?

General Surgery

QBank

158

Which electrolyte must be corrected before replacing potassium in a hypokalemic patient?

General Surgery

QBank

159

A postoperative patient receives large volumes of IV fluids and develops bilateral lung crackles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

160

What is the best way to assess fluid responsiveness in a critically ill patient?

General Surgery

QBank

161

A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with a 2.5 cm cold thyroid nodule with FNA showing papillary carcinoma. What is the recommended treatment?

General Surgery

QBank

162

What is the most common complication after total thyroidectomy?

General Surgery

QBank

163

Which thyroid cancer subtype is associated with MEN 2A and 2B?

General Surgery

QBank

164

A patient presents with calcium of 12.2 mg/dL and PTH elevated. When is parathyroidectomy indicated?

General Surgery

QBank

165

A patient with hypercalcemia has low urinary calcium excretion and normal PTH. What is the likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

166

What is the appropriate pre-op preparation for pheochromocytoma?

General Surgery

QBank

167

MEN 1 syndrome includes all EXCEPT:

General Surgery

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168

What is the treatment of choice for a unilateral aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma (Conn syndrome)?

General Surgery

QBank

169

A 40-year-old with Cushingoid features has elevated 24-hour cortisol and low ACTH. What is the next best test?

General Surgery

QBank

170

Which thyroid malignancy has the worst prognosis?

General Surgery

QBank

171

An elderly man presents with a groin bulge that increases with standing. It is medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia is it?

General Surgery

QBank

172

A newborn male has a reducible groin mass that increases with crying. Transillumination is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

173

A 40-year-old woman presents with a groin mass located below the inguinal ligament. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

174

A 5-year-old boy has a painless scrotal swelling that transilluminates. It increases with crying. What is the diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

175

A patient presents with scrotal swelling and severe testicular pain. Elevation of the testis increases pain. What sign is this and what is the likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

176

What is the best initial step in management for suspected testicular torsion?

General Surgery

QBank

177

A 19-year-old male has sudden scrotal pain and vomiting. Cremasteric reflex is absent. Doppler shows absent blood flow. What is the diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

178

A patient with scrotal pain has fever, dysuria, and relief of pain upon scrotal elevation. UA shows pyuria. What is the diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

179

What is the most common cause of testicular torsion?

General Surgery

QBank

180

A 70-year-old man with a history of prostate cancer presents with a firm, painless scrotal mass. It does not transilluminate. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

181

A 52-year-old man presents with fever, chills, and a hot, red, swollen leg. The area is tender and poorly demarcated. Diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

182

What antibiotic is recommended for outpatient treatment of uncomplicated purulent cellulitis caused by suspected MRSA?

General Surgery

QBank

183

Erysipelas differs from cellulitis by which of the following?

General Surgery

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184

A 40-year-old diabetic presents with rapidly spreading skin necrosis, pain out of proportion, and crepitus. Next step?

General Surgery

QBank

185

What is the classic finding in necrotizing fasciitis during surgery?

General Surgery

QBank

186

Which pathogen is most commonly implicated in Fournier gangrene?

General Surgery

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187

A patient has folliculitis after hot tub exposure. Causative organism?

General Surgery

QBank

188

What is the most appropriate management for a fluctuant abscess on the buttock?

General Surgery

QBank

189

A 22-year-old presents with multiple pustules around hair follicles on his thighs. Diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

190

A 45-year-old man presents with a tender, fluctuant mass at the anal verge, along with fever. What is the most appropriate management?

General Surgery

QBank

191

A patient has intermittent, foul-smelling perianal discharge after drainage of an abscess. Most likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

192

A 30-year-old woman presents with intense pain during defecation and bright red blood on toilet paper. Diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

193

A patient has persistent anal fissure despite medical management. What is the next step?

General Surgery

QBank

194

A 50-year-old man complains of painless, bright-red blood after defecation. What is the likely diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

195

Grade III internal hemorrhoids are defined by which of the following?

General Surgery

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196

What is the treatment of choice for refractory external thrombosed hemorrhoids causing severe pain?

General Surgery

QBank

197

A young man presents with a fluctuant mass in the midline upper gluteal cleft. Diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

198

A 35-year-old woman has recurrent tender nodules in the axilla with sinus tracts and scarring. What is the diagnosis?

General Surgery

QBank

199

What is the best treatment for early hidradenitis suppurativa?

General Surgery

QBank

200

Which of the following is true about chronic anal fissures?

General Surgery

QBank

1

A 6-year-old boy presents with fatigue, bruising, and recurrent infections. Examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly and bone pain. Peripheral smear shows lymphoblasts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

2

A 68-year-old man presents with fatigue and lymphadenopathy. CBC reveals lymphocytosis and smudge cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

3

A 45-year-old man with a t(9;22) translocation presents with splenomegaly and fatigue. What is the best initial treatment?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

4

A patient presents with hypercalcemia, anemia, bone pain, and renal insufficiency. Serum electrophoresis reveals an M spike. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

5

A 30-year-old man presents with painless cervical lymphadenopathy and B symptoms. Biopsy shows Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

6

A 32-year-old woman presents with fatigue and pica. CBC shows microcytic, hypochromic anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

7

Which of the following is the earliest laboratory indicator of iron deficiency?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

8

A patient with iron deficiency anemia is started on oral ferrous sulfate. What side effect should you warn them about?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

9

Which of the following would you expect in iron deficiency anemia?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

10

A 44-year-old man with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with fatigue and pallor. Labs show low hemoglobin and low ferritin. What is the most appropriate next step?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

11

What is the most accurate method to confirm iron deficiency anemia?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

12

In which of the following conditions is serum ferritin falsely elevated despite iron deficiency?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

13

A patient is non-compliant with oral iron therapy due to GI side effects. What is the best next step?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

14

How soon after initiating oral iron therapy is reticulocytosis expected?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

15

Which of the following is least likely a cause of iron deficiency anemia?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

16

A pregnant woman is found to have hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL with low MCV and low ferritin. What is the next best step?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

17

A 65-year-old woman presents with fatigue and glossitis. Labs show macrocytic anemia and hypersegmented neutrophils. What is the most likely cause?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

18

A patient with pernicious anemia is at increased risk for which of the following?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

19

A 40-year-old vegan presents with fatigue and paresthesia. Which lab abnormality would support vitamin B12 deficiency?

Hematology & Oncology

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20

A 3-year-old child has microcytic anemia unresponsive to iron therapy. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows increased HbA2. What is the likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

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21

Which of the following features is most consistent with thalassemia major?

Hematology & Oncology

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22

A patient with thalassemia major requires frequent transfusions. What complication should be monitored?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

23

A patient with sickle cell disease presents with acute chest pain and hypoxia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

24

What is the most appropriate long-term management in children with sickle cell anemia?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

25

A sickle cell patient presents with sudden anemia and low reticulocyte count. What is the most likely cause?

Hematology & Oncology

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26

Which vaccination is crucial in children with sickle cell disease?

Hematology & Oncology

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27

A peripheral smear in a sickle cell crisis would most likely show:

Hematology & Oncology

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28

Which hemoglobin pattern is expected in sickle cell trait?

Hematology & Oncology

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29

What is the most common cause of death in adults with sickle cell disease?

Hematology & Oncology

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30

In beta-thalassemia major, which treatment is most likely required for long-term survival?

Hematology & Oncology

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31

A 17-year-old presents with pallor and mild jaundice. CBC shows normocytic anemia. Osmotic fragility test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

32

Which peripheral smear finding is typical in hereditary spherocytosis?

Hematology & Oncology

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33

What is the definitive treatment for hereditary spherocytosis in a symptomatic patient?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

34

A 24-year-old man develops jaundice and dark urine after taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. What is the likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

35

What would a peripheral smear most likely show in G6PD deficiency during a hemolytic episode?

Hematology & Oncology

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36

Why is G6PD testing unreliable during acute hemolysis?

Hematology & Oncology

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37

Which anemia is characterized by a positive direct Coombs (DAT) test?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

38

A patient with warm AIHA should initially be treated with:

Hematology & Oncology

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39

Cold agglutinin disease is most commonly associated with which infection?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

40

A patient with AIHA and severe anemia is transfused. What is a major concern?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

41

What lab finding best supports hemolytic anemia?

Hematology & Oncology

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42

What is the role of haptoglobin in hemolytic anemia?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

43

Which of the following anemias presents with schistocytes on peripheral smear?

Hematology & Oncology

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44

Which of the following would most likely require a splenectomy as definitive treatment?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

45

A patient with fatigue, pallor, and splenomegaly has a positive Coombs test. What is the underlying pathophysiology?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

46

A 6-year-old boy from the Mediterranean region presents with chronic fatigue, facial bone deformities, and delayed growth. He has required multiple transfusions since infancy. On exam, he has hepatosplenomegaly. Lab tests reveal microcytic anemia and elevated HbF. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

47

A 29-year-old woman with sickle cell disease presents with sudden right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and jaundice. Labs reveal elevated AST, ALT, and direct hyperbilirubinemia. Ultrasound shows gallstones. What is the next best step?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

48

A 5-year-old boy with sickle cell disease presents with fever, hypotension, and confusion. On exam, he is pale with delayed capillary refill. Labs show WBC 22,000/mm³ and lactic acidosis. What is the most appropriate next step?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

49

A 15-year-old boy with beta-thalassemia major has been receiving transfusions since infancy. He now complains of fatigue and joint pain. Lab work shows elevated ferritin and liver enzymes. What complication is most likely responsible?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

50

A 10-year-old girl with sickle cell disease presents with sudden pallor and fainting. On exam, she has marked splenomegaly and tachycardia. Labs show a drop in hemoglobin and elevated reticulocyte count. What is the most likely cause?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

51

A 35-year-old man with beta-thalassemia intermedia presents with new-onset back pain, pallor, and hepatomegaly. Bone marrow biopsy shows marked erythroid hyperplasia. What long-term skeletal complication is this patient at risk for?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

52

A 40-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has normocytic anemia. Labs show low serum iron, low TIBC, and normal-to-increased ferritin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

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53

A 30-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue. Her hemoglobin is 10 g/dL. Labs show low iron, low TIBC, and high ferritin. Which type of anemia does this pattern indicate?

Hematology & Oncology

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54

A patient has microcytic anemia with low serum iron, low ferritin, and high TIBC. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

55

A 19-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents with sudden-onset severe hip pain. He denies trauma. X-ray shows flattened femoral head. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

56

A 23-year-old man with sickle cell disease is found to have hematuria. No stones are seen on imaging, and creatinine is normal. What is the most likely cause?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

57

A 14-year-old girl with sickle cell disease presents with progressive fatigue, dyspnea, and exertional syncope. ECG shows right heart strain. What is the most likely complication?

Hematology & Oncology

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58

A patient with sickle cell disease is on daily hydroxyurea therapy. What is the primary mechanism of benefit for this medication?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

59

Which of the following is a common complication in adult patients with beta-thalassemia major who are inadequately chelated?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

60

A 20-year-old man with mild beta-thalassemia trait is asymptomatic but found to have persistent microcytosis. What is the best management?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

61

A 62-year-old man presents with headaches, pruritus after hot showers, and facial plethora. Labs show elevated hemoglobin, hematocrit, and low erythropoietin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

62

A patient with polycythemia vera is started on hydroxyurea. What is the primary goal of treatment?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

63

A 68-year-old man presents with fatigue and bone pain. Serum calcium is elevated, creatinine is 2.2 mg/dL, and hemoglobin is low. SPEP shows a monoclonal spike. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

64

A patient with multiple myeloma presents with recurrent infections. What is the most likely cause?

Hematology & Oncology

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65

A patient with suspected multiple myeloma has normal X-rays. What is the next best imaging modality?

Hematology & Oncology

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66

What is the classic finding in the urine of a patient with multiple myeloma?

Hematology & Oncology

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67

A patient with multiple myeloma has persistent hypercalcemia. What is the primary mechanism?

Hematology & Oncology

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68

What is the definitive diagnostic test for multiple myeloma?

Hematology & Oncology

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69

A 27-year-old man presents with pancytopenia. Bone marrow biopsy reveals hypocellular marrow without fibrosis or malignancy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

70

Which of the following is a known cause of aplastic anemia?

Hematology & Oncology

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71

What is the most appropriate initial treatment in a young patient with severe aplastic anemia and no matched sibling donor?

Hematology & Oncology

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72

Which of the following findings helps distinguish aplastic anemia from leukemia?

Hematology & Oncology

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73

A 58-year-old woman has anemia, high ESR, rouleaux formation, and recurrent infections. What test will best identify the monoclonal nature of her disease?

Hematology & Oncology

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74

A 70-year-old man has fatigue, anemia, and hyperviscosity symptoms. SPEP shows IgM monoclonal spike. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

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75

Which of the following best differentiates Waldenström macroglobulinemia from multiple myeloma?

Hematology & Oncology

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76

What is the most common cause of death in multiple myeloma?

Hematology & Oncology

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77

A 30-year-old male presents with fatigue and easy bruising. Labs show pancytopenia, reticulocyte count is low, and bone marrow biopsy is hypocellular. What is the reticulocyte response?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

78

In patients with polycythemia vera, what is the primary reason for aspirin therapy?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

79

A 65-year-old man with multiple myeloma develops back pain and spinal cord compression. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

80

What finding is most specific to polycythemia vera compared to other causes of erythrocytosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

81

A 6-year-old boy presents with recurrent joint swelling and prolonged bleeding after minor injuries. Family history reveals a maternal uncle with a similar condition. Labs show a normal platelet count, normal PT, and prolonged aPTT. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

82

What is the best initial treatment for a child with hemophilia A presenting with joint swelling and limited range of motion?

Hematology & Oncology

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83

A 25-year-old man with mild hemophilia A needs dental extraction. Which drug can be given to minimize bleeding?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

84

A patient with hemophilia A develops resistance to factor VIII therapy. What is the most likely explanation?

Hematology & Oncology

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85

Which coagulation factor is deficient in Hemophilia B?

Hematology & Oncology

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86

A 23-year-old woman presents with recurrent nosebleeds, easy bruising, and heavy periods. Platelet count is normal, PT is normal, but aPTT is mildly prolonged. What test should be ordered next?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

87

Which of the following laboratory abnormalities is most consistent with von Willebrand disease?

Hematology & Oncology

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88

A 4-year-old girl presents with sudden petechiae and mucosal bleeding. Platelet count is 18,000/µL. Recent history includes a viral illness. PT and aPTT are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

89

What is the best initial treatment for a child with ITP who is bleeding and has platelets <10,000/µL?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

90

A hospitalized patient develops thrombocytopenia 7 days after starting heparin. Platelet count drops by 50%. What test confirms the diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

91

What is the next best step in a patient diagnosed with HIT?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

92

A 5-year-old girl presents with fever, bruising, and renal failure. Labs show thrombocytopenia and schistocytes on smear. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

93

A 32-year-old woman presents with confusion, petechiae, and acute renal failure. Labs show schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, and normal PT/aPTT. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

94

Which lab abnormality is most characteristic of DIC?

Hematology & Oncology

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95

A trauma patient receives 10 units of blood. He starts oozing from IV sites and has a low platelet count and prolonged PT. What is the likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

96

Which of the following disorders is due to ADAMTS13 deficiency?

Hematology & Oncology

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97

What lab value is most specific for differentiating DIC from TTP?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

98

Which platelet disorder is associated with absent αIIbβ3 (GpIIb/IIIa) receptors?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

99

A neonate has severe bleeding, prolonged PTT, and normal PT. Which factor is most likely deficient?

Hematology & Oncology

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100

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

101

A 7-year-old boy is brought in with spontaneous bruising on his limbs and bleeding gums. Two weeks ago, he had a mild viral illness. On examination, he has multiple petechiae but no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. His labs show platelet count of 15,000/µL, normal hemoglobin, WBC, PT, and aPTT. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

102

A 55-year-old man with sepsis secondary to pneumonia is noted to have bleeding from IV lines and gums. He is hypotensive and tachycardic. Lab investigations reveal a platelet count of 40,000/µL, PT 19 seconds, aPTT 52 seconds, D-dimer elevated, and fibrinogen low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

103

A 30-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and recurrent nosebleeds since childhood. Her father had a similar history. Labs show normal platelet count, mildly prolonged aPTT, and prolonged bleeding time. Platelet aggregation studies are abnormal with ristocetin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

104

A 45-year-old man presents with altered mental status, petechiae, and acute kidney injury. His labs show anemia, thrombocytopenia, elevated LDH, indirect hyperbilirubinemia, and schistocytes on peripheral smear. Coagulation panel is normal. What is the next best step in management?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

105

A postpartum woman develops sudden-onset bruising, oozing from surgical site, and hypotension. Labs show thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT and aPTT, elevated D-dimer, and low fibrinogen. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

106

A 68-year-old woman with metastatic pancreatic cancer presents with purpura and oozing from catheter sites. Labs reveal thrombocytopenia, low fibrinogen, elevated D-dimer, and prolonged PT/aPTT. Which of the following explains the pathophysiology?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

107

A 24-year-old woman presents with gingival bleeding, menorrhagia, and easy bruising. CBC shows normal platelets. Coagulation profile is normal except a mildly prolonged aPTT. Platelet aggregation fails with ristocetin. What drug is most likely to help in acute bleeding?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

108

A patient on warfarin presents with INR >7 and active GI bleeding. What is the most appropriate reversal strategy?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

109

A 52-year-old woman on heparin develops a 60% drop in platelets on day 6 of hospitalization. She now complains of right leg pain. Doppler shows deep vein thrombosis. What is the next best step in management?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

110

A 65-year-old man with cirrhosis presents with easy bruising and prolonged bleeding after minor trauma. Labs show low platelet count, prolonged PT and aPTT, and low fibrinogen. D-dimer is elevated. What condition does this lab profile most resemble?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

111

A trauma patient receives 20 units of blood over 24 hours. He now has diffuse oozing and prolonged PT, aPTT, and low fibrinogen. What is the cause of his bleeding?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

112

A 36-year-old woman presents with fatigue and purpura. Her labs show platelet count of 12,000/µL. Peripheral smear shows large platelets. Coagulation tests are normal. She is diagnosed with chronic ITP. What is the first-line treatment?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

113

A 25-year-old woman with long-standing ITP is being considered for splenectomy. What vaccine should be administered preoperatively?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

114

A hospitalized patient develops acute kidney injury, neurologic changes, anemia, and thrombocytopenia. Schistocytes are seen. PT and aPTT are normal. Which of the following is contraindicated in this condition?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

115

A 28-year-old woman is found to have heavy menstrual bleeding and ecchymoses. Platelet count and coagulation studies are normal. Platelet function analysis shows defective aggregation to ADP, collagen, and epinephrine, but normal response to ristocetin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

116

A 7-year-old boy is brought in for fatigue, gum bleeding, and frequent infections over the past month. On examination, he appears pale with petechiae on his lower limbs and cervical lymphadenopathy. CBC shows pancytopenia. A peripheral smear reveals numerous lymphoblasts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

117

A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue and easy bruising. Labs reveal anemia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated WBC count with >20% myeloblasts. Auer rods are seen on peripheral smear. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

118

A 68-year-old man is incidentally found to have WBC count of 110,000/mm³. He reports fatigue but no fever, weight loss, or infections. Smear shows numerous small, mature-appearing lymphocytes and smudge cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

119

A 45-year-old man presents with fatigue and massive splenomegaly. CBC shows elevated WBC with myelocytes, metamyelocytes, and basophilia. Bone marrow shows hypercellularity. What chromosomal abnormality is likely?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

120

A 56-year-old man presents with recurrent infections and bone pain. His WBC is 150,000/mm³. Peripheral smear shows immature myeloid cells. FISH confirms a BCR-ABL gene fusion. What is the best initial therapy?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

121

A 5-year-old presents with leg pain, fevers, and refusal to walk. CBC reveals anemia and thrombocytopenia. Bone marrow shows >30% lymphoblasts positive for TdT. What is the definitive treatment plan?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

122

Which of the following findings differentiates AML from ALL?

Hematology & Oncology

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123

A young adult presents with gingival hypertrophy, fatigue, and anemia. Peripheral smear reveals myeloblasts with Auer rods. What is the diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

124

A patient with acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3 subtype) is started on all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA). What life-threatening complication should be monitored?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

125

A 58-year-old man with known CLL now has increasing lymphadenopathy and B symptoms. Labs show elevated LDH and rapid rise in lymphocyte count. What complication is most likely occurring?

Hematology & Oncology

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126

Which leukemia is characterized by tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) positivity and massive splenomegaly?

Hematology & Oncology

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127

What is the most common leukemia in adults in the Western world?

Hematology & Oncology

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128

Auer rods are characteristic of which leukemia?

Hematology & Oncology

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129

Which leukemia is associated with a t(15;17) translocation?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

130

A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, bone pain, and recurrent infections. She has hypercellular bone marrow with >25% lymphoblasts. TdT and CD10 are positive. What is the diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

131

A 60-year-old woman presents with generalized lymphadenopathy, night sweats, and weight loss. Lymph node biopsy shows a diffuse proliferation of large B lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

132

A 29-year-old man presents with painless cervical lymphadenopathy. Biopsy reveals Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the standard initial treatment for early-stage Hodgkin lymphoma?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

133

A 72-year-old woman with a history of chronic GI bleeding from angiodysplasia has normocytic anemia. Her reticulocyte count is low. What is the best first-line treatment?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

134

A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease is found to have normocytic, normochromic anemia. Iron stores are adequate. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

135

A 36-year-old woman presents with fatigue and pallor. Labs show Hb 9.5 g/dL, MCV 74 fL, ferritin 7 ng/mL, and TIBC elevated. What is the next step?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

136

A 25-year-old man of Mediterranean descent has mild anemia and a family history of similar findings. Peripheral smear shows target cells and microcytosis. HbA2 is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

137

A 20-year-old African American man develops dark urine and jaundice two days after taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for a skin infection. Labs reveal anemia, elevated LDH, and low haptoglobin. What is the most likely cause?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

138

What peripheral smear finding is most consistent with G6PD deficiency during hemolysis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

139

Which of the following should be avoided in a patient with known G6PD deficiency?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

140

A patient with G6PD deficiency is tested during an active hemolytic episode, but results return normal. What is the most appropriate next step?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

141

A 16-year-old girl with menorrhagia and fatigue is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. After 4 weeks of oral iron therapy, what lab change would indicate early response?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

142

Which of the following is the gold standard for diagnosing hereditary spherocytosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

143

A 35-year-old woman develops sudden fatigue and pallor. Labs show Hb 6 g/dL, reticulocyte count 0.1%, and pancytopenia. Bone marrow biopsy reveals hypocellularity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

144

What is the most appropriate initial treatment for autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

145

A patient presents with anemia, jaundice, and splenomegaly. Coombs test is positive. Peripheral smear shows spherocytes. What is the diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

146

A 4-year-old child presents with a petechial rash and easy bruising after a recent viral infection. Platelet count is 18,000/µL, while hemoglobin, WBC, PT, and aPTT are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

147

A 38-year-old woman presents with petechiae and heavy menses. Platelet count is 12,000/µL. Coagulation studies are normal. What is the best initial treatment for suspected ITP?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

148

A patient with chronic ITP is not responding to corticosteroids or IVIG. What is the next best treatment option?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

149

A patient presents with fatigue and splenomegaly. Labs show WBC 150,000/µL, low neutrophils, and immature granulocytes. What is the most likely cause?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

150

Which lab finding differentiates a leukemoid reaction from chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

151

A 25-year-old woman presents with sudden abdominal pain and anemia. Exam shows a distended abdomen and palpable spleen. Labs reveal a drop in hemoglobin and high reticulocyte count. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

152

A 4-year-old sickle cell patient presents with pallor, fatigue, and splenomegaly. Hemoglobin is 4.2 g/dL, and reticulocyte count is high. What is the initial management?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

153

A 32-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of increasing fatigue. Labs show WBC 155,000/mm³. Differential shows granulocytes in various stages of maturation. Bone marrow is hypercellular. What is the treatment of choice?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

154

A patient is admitted for sepsis and develops WBC count of 45,000/mm³. LAP score is high. What is the likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

155

A 24-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents with rapid onset pallor and weakness. His hemoglobin is 5.8, and reticulocyte count is <0.5%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

156

Which of the following infections is most commonly associated with aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

157

A patient with CML in chronic phase is treated with imatinib. Six months later, BCR-ABL is undetectable. What is the most appropriate next step?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

158

A 12-year-old with sickle cell presents with fever, chest pain, and hypoxia. CXR shows new pulmonary infiltrate. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

159

What is the treatment of choice for acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

160

A 16-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recurrent episodes of splenic sequestration. What is the recommended long-term management?

Hematology & Oncology

QBank

1

A 35-year-old woman with no prior medical history presents with a persistent nonproductive cough, fever, and weight loss for 3 weeks. CXR reveals cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. She immigrated from Southeast Asia 6 months ago. What is the best initial diagnostic test?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

2

A 27-year-old HIV-positive man presents with fever, headache, and confusion. LP reveals high opening pressure, low glucose, elevated protein, and positive cryptococcal antigen. What is the next best step?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

3

A 38-year-old woman is diagnosed with latent TB after a positive IGRA and normal CXR. She has no symptoms. What is the preferred treatment?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

4

A patient with CD4 count <200/mm³ is at risk of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. What is the most appropriate prophylactic agent?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

5

A 30-year-old man with HIV has a CD4 count of 40/mm³ and presents with chronic watery diarrhea. Acid-fast oocysts are seen in stool. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

6

A 24-year-old traveler returns from India with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and signs of dehydration. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

7

Which pathogen is most commonly associated with bloody diarrhea following ingestion of undercooked beef and may lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

8

A 30-year-old woman develops diarrhea after eating street food. She has fever, abdominal cramps, and frequent small bloody stools. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

9

Which bacterial diarrhea has the highest association with reactive arthritis and Guillain-Barré syndrome?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

10

A patient presents with profuse watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and acidosis. What is the mainstay of cholera treatment?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

11

Which of the following bacterial diarrheas is classically associated with ingestion of contaminated poultry?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

12

A 45-year-old man develops diarrhea during a course of clindamycin. He is afebrile but has leukocytosis. Which test confirms the suspected diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

13

What is the treatment of choice for severe Clostridium difficile colitis?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

14

A patient develops diarrhea 3 hours after eating reheated fried rice. What is the likely organism?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

15

Which bacterial pathogen is commonly implicated in diarrhea after seafood ingestion in warm coastal regions?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

16

What distinguishes Salmonella gastroenteritis from other causes of diarrhea?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

17

Traveler’s diarrhea is most commonly caused by:

Infectious Diseases

QBank

18

A stool sample reveals curved, motile, oxidase-positive gram-negative rods. Likely organism?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

19

Which diarrhea-causing organism can mimic appendicitis due to RLQ pain and mesenteric lymphadenitis?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

20

Which bacterial pathogen should never be treated with antibiotics due to risk of HUS?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

21

A 26-year-old otherwise healthy man presents with a dry cough, low-grade fever, and patchy infiltrates on CXR. Which organism is most likely responsible?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

22

First-line antibiotic for outpatient treatment of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in a healthy adult?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

23

A 67-year-old man with COPD develops pneumonia. Sputum culture grows Haemophilus influenzae. What is the preferred antibiotic?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

24

A 70-year-old woman develops pneumonia during hospitalization. Sputum shows gram-negative rods. What is the next step?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

25

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of macrolide antibiotics?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

26

A patient with CAP has a severe beta-lactam allergy. Which alternative combo is appropriate?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

27

Pneumonia with diarrhea, hyponatremia, and elevated liver enzymes points toward which pathogen?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

28

What is the empiric treatment of aspiration pneumonia with risk of anaerobes?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

29

A nursing home resident develops pneumonia and tests positive for MRSA. What antibiotic is best?

Infectious Diseases

QBank

30

A lobar pneumonia is seen in an alcoholic with currant jelly sputum. Which organism is likely?

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31

Which antibiotic has a black box warning for tendon rupture and CNS effects?

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32

What is the preferred empiric therapy for inpatient treatment of CAP?

Infectious Diseases

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33

Which pneumonia organism is associated with bird droppings exposure?

Infectious Diseases

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34

A patient with pneumonia and known penicillin allergy (anaphylaxis) needs coverage for S. pneumoniae. Best choice?

Infectious Diseases

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35

What class of antibiotic is linezolid, and when is it used in pneumonia?

Infectious Diseases

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36

Which oral antibiotic is preferred in post-influenza pneumonia caused by MSSA?

Infectious Diseases

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37

Which organism is classically associated with pneumonia in alcoholics or diabetics?

Infectious Diseases

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38

Pneumonia with cold agglutinins and bullous myringitis points to:

Infectious Diseases

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39

Which antibiotic is avoided in children due to risk of cartilage damage?

Infectious Diseases

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40

Which pneumonia type is associated with air conditioning systems and contaminated water?

Infectious Diseases

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41

A 29-year-old hiker presents with foul-smelling, greasy diarrhea and bloating after camping. He drank untreated stream water. Which organism is most likely?

Infectious Diseases

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42

Which protozoan forms flask-shaped ulcers in the colon and can cause a solitary liver abscess with anchovy paste aspirate?

Infectious Diseases

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43

A child with AIDS presents with watery diarrhea. Stool exam reveals acid-fast oocysts. What is the most likely cause?

Infectious Diseases

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44

What is the treatment of choice for giardiasis?

Infectious Diseases

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45

A pregnant woman is exposed to cat feces while gardening. She develops lymphadenopathy. What is the next step?

Infectious Diseases

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46

Which protozoan infection is associated with ingestion of cysts from undercooked pork and may cause neurocysticercosis?

Infectious Diseases

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47

A neonate born with chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications most likely has which congenital protozoal infection?

Infectious Diseases

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48

A traveler returns from rural South America with cardiomegaly, megaesophagus, and constipation. Which parasite is most likely?

Infectious Diseases

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49

Which protozoan is transmitted via sandfly bites and can cause kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis)?

Infectious Diseases

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50

Which test confirms diagnosis of amebic liver abscess?

Infectious Diseases

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51

A 6-year-old child returns from a summer camp with prolonged watery diarrhea. Oocysts are seen in stool, and TMP-SMX cures it. Likely organism?

Infectious Diseases

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52

Which protozoan infection causes sleeping sickness, characterized by fever, lymphadenopathy, and CNS symptoms?

Infectious Diseases

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53

A 20-year-old swimmer develops diarrhea after using a poorly chlorinated public pool. Acid-fast oocysts are seen. What is the most likely cause?

Infectious Diseases

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54

What is the mechanism of pathogenesis in Entamoeba histolytica?

Infectious Diseases

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55

Which protozoan causes sexually transmitted vaginitis with a "strawberry cervix"?

Infectious Diseases

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56

Which of the following is the drug of choice for Trichomonas vaginalis infection in both partners?

Infectious Diseases

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57

Which protozoan infection can be transmitted via organ transplantation and cause chorioretinitis in the recipient?

Infectious Diseases

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58

A man in India develops cutaneous ulcers after a sandfly bite. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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59

Which test confirms diagnosis of Cryptosporidium in stool samples?

Infectious Diseases

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60

What is the major mode of transmission of Toxoplasma gondii in adults?

Infectious Diseases

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61

A 19-year-old college student presents with sore throat, fever, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. A heterophile antibody test is positive. What is the likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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62

A patient with suspected EBV mononucleosis develops a maculopapular rash after receiving ampicillin. What does this indicate?

Infectious Diseases

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63

What is the most common complication of EBV-associated infectious mononucleosis?

Infectious Diseases

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64

A 22-year-old has Monospot-negative mononucleosis-like illness. Which virus is the most likely cause?

Infectious Diseases

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65

What is the most specific test for diagnosing primary CMV infection?

Infectious Diseases

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66

A transplant patient develops fever, malaise, and tissue-invasive disease. CMV PCR is positive. What is the treatment?

Infectious Diseases

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67

Which of the following is a characteristic finding of CMV retinitis in an AIDS patient?

Infectious Diseases

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68

In neonates, congenital CMV infection presents with which triad?

Infectious Diseases

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69

A patient presents with sore throat, splenomegaly, atypical lymphocytes on smear, and hepatomegaly. What is the causative organism?

Infectious Diseases

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70

A patient with primary CMV infection will most likely show which hematological feature?

Infectious Diseases

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71

What should be avoided in a patient with suspected mononucleosis until the diagnosis is confirmed?

Infectious Diseases

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72

EBV is associated with which type of malignancy?

Infectious Diseases

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73

What is the best next step in a 25-year-old woman with fatigue, fever, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy who tests Monospot-positive?

Infectious Diseases

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74

What is a distinguishing feature of CMV mononucleosis compared to EBV mono?

Infectious Diseases

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75

What is the incubation period for EBV mononucleosis?

Infectious Diseases

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76

CMV colitis in HIV patients is most common at which CD4 count threshold?

Infectious Diseases

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77

Which antiviral has the highest risk of causing bone marrow suppression in CMV treatment?

Infectious Diseases

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78

What is the reservoir of CMV in humans?

Infectious Diseases

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79

In immunocompetent adults, CMV infection typically presents as:

Infectious Diseases

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80

A 20-year-old man with EBV develops tonsillar hypertrophy and difficulty breathing. What is the next step?

Infectious Diseases

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81

At what CD4 count should prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia be initiated?

Infectious Diseases

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82

A patient with HIV and CD4 count of 45 presents with blurry vision. Fundoscopy shows yellow-white retinal lesions with hemorrhage. Likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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83

What is the first-line prophylaxis for Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) in HIV?

Infectious Diseases

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84

A 30-year-old HIV-positive man with CD4 <100 presents with headache, fever, and photophobia. LP shows high opening pressure. India ink stain is positive. Diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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85

At what CD4 count does reactivation of Toxoplasma gondii become a major concern?

Infectious Diseases

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86

A patient with CD4 <100 presents with ring-enhancing lesions in the brain on MRI. What is the empiric treatment?

Infectious Diseases

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87

A 40-year-old HIV patient with CD4 75 presents with nonproductive cough and bilateral interstitial infiltrates. ABG shows hypoxia. Diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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88

What is the best initial test for suspected Pneumocystis pneumonia?

Infectious Diseases

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89

A 35-year-old man with HIV develops purple, painless nodules on the skin and oral mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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90

What is the typical treatment for Kaposi sarcoma in an HIV patient?

Infectious Diseases

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91

A patient with CD4 count <200 has oral white plaques that can be scraped off, revealing erythematous mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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92

Which prophylactic agent is used to prevent both PCP and Toxoplasma in HIV?

Infectious Diseases

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93

Which condition presents with fluffy white retinal lesions and is the most common cause of vision loss in AIDS?

Infectious Diseases

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94

A patient with CD4 <50 presents with persistent fever, weight loss, and diarrhea. Blood cultures grow acid-fast organisms. What is the most likely pathogen?

Infectious Diseases

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95

When should antiretroviral therapy be initiated in a newly diagnosed HIV-positive patient?

Infectious Diseases

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96

What HIV-related complication is characterized by non-enhancing white matter lesions with no mass effect?

Infectious Diseases

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97

Which neoplasm is most strongly associated with HIV and caused by EBV?

Infectious Diseases

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98

A patient with CD4 <50 develops watery diarrhea. Stool is positive for acid-fast oocysts. Likely organism?

Infectious Diseases

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99

What is the most likely cause of CNS lymphoma in HIV patients?

Infectious Diseases

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100

In HIV patients, what CD4 threshold is used for initiating isoniazid prophylaxis for latent TB?

Infectious Diseases

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101

Which hepatitis virus is most likely to progress to chronic infection?

Infectious Diseases

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102

A 25-year-old woman with hepatitis B has HBsAg and HBeAg positive. What does this indicate?

Infectious Diseases

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103

A newborn born to an HBV-positive mother should receive which of the following?

Infectious Diseases

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104

What is the most serious complication of Hepatitis E virus in pregnant women?

Infectious Diseases

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105

What serologic marker indicates immunity to hepatitis B after successful vaccination?

Infectious Diseases

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106

A patient with fatigue, elevated liver enzymes, and anti-HCV antibody positive. What is the next step?

Infectious Diseases

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107

A pregnant woman is diagnosed with primary CMV infection. What is the best fetal complication to monitor for?

Infectious Diseases

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108

Which of the following infections is NOT part of the classic TORCH complex?

Infectious Diseases

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109

A neonate presents with blueberry muffin rash, cataracts, and PDA. What is the most likely infection?

Infectious Diseases

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110

A neonate with hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, and intracranial calcifications most likely has which congenital infection?

Infectious Diseases

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111

Congenital CMV differs from toxoplasmosis by showing which CT finding?

Infectious Diseases

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112

Which congenital infection presents with snuffles, frontal bossing, and saber shins?

Infectious Diseases

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113

What is the confirmatory test for congenital syphilis?

Infectious Diseases

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114

A child presents with cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and high fever. What is the next pathognomonic feature expected in measles?

Infectious Diseases

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115

What is the most common complication of measles in children?

Infectious Diseases

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116

A child recovering from measles develops neurologic deterioration years later. Likely cause?

Infectious Diseases

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117

What is the transmission mode of measles virus?

Infectious Diseases

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118

When is the first dose of measles (MMR) vaccine given?

Infectious Diseases

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119

A 3-year-old with measles-like rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy has arthritis. What virus is most likely?

Infectious Diseases

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120

A 6-month-old infant exposed to measles develops no symptoms. What prevented infection?

Infectious Diseases

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121

What is the first-line diagnostic test for active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Infectious Diseases

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122

A 30-year-old immigrant has apical lung infiltrates on chest X-ray and chronic cough. What is the next best step?

Infectious Diseases

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123

Which of the following is the correct treatment regimen for active TB?

Infectious Diseases

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124

What TB drug can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids?

Infectious Diseases

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125

What side effect is associated with isoniazid and can be prevented with pyridoxine?

Infectious Diseases

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126

What organism most commonly causes atypical pneumonia in healthy young adults?

Infectious Diseases

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127

A college student presents with dry cough, sore throat, and patchy interstitial infiltrates. Cold agglutinins are positive. What is the most likely cause?

Infectious Diseases

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128

What is the treatment of choice for Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Infectious Diseases

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129

A patient presents with atypical pneumonia and diarrhea. His urine antigen test is positive. Likely pathogen?

Infectious Diseases

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130

A man presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base over the lip. Likely cause?

Infectious Diseases

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131

Which antiviral is first-line for genital herpes during an acute outbreak?

Infectious Diseases

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132

A woman at 38 weeks gestation has active genital HSV lesions. What is the recommended mode of delivery?

Infectious Diseases

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133

A 25-year-old man with multiple shallow, painful genital ulcers and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely cause?

Infectious Diseases

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134

What is the hallmark lesion of primary syphilis?

Infectious Diseases

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135

Which serologic test confirms syphilis after a positive RPR?

Infectious Diseases

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136

A patient with syphilis reports a diffuse maculopapular rash involving the palms and soles. What stage is this?

Infectious Diseases

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137

What is the treatment of choice for primary and secondary syphilis?

Infectious Diseases

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138

Which complication is seen in tertiary syphilis?

Infectious Diseases

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139

What congenital anomaly is associated with late congenital syphilis?

Infectious Diseases

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140

A patient with HIV presents with neurosyphilis. What is the recommended treatment?

Infectious Diseases

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141

A 35-year-old man from rural India presents with hypopigmented, numb patches on his skin and thickened ulnar nerve. He also has clawing of the hand and foot drop. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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142

What is the WHO-recommended treatment for multibacillary leprosy?

Infectious Diseases

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143

A child with multiple hypopigmented anesthetic skin lesions and no visible bacilli on slit-skin smear. What type of leprosy is this?

Infectious Diseases

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144

What is the major side effect of dapsone used in leprosy treatment?

Infectious Diseases

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145

A 7-year-old unvaccinated child presents with fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing. Examination reveals a thick gray membrane over the tonsils that bleeds when scraped. What is the next best step?

Infectious Diseases

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146

A 2-month-old infant presents with paroxysms of violent coughing followed by vomiting. The mother reports episodes of apnea and turning blue. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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147

What is the treatment of choice for pertussis?

Infectious Diseases

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148

A 9-year-old boy presents with high-grade fever, headache, myalgia, and a rash that started on his wrists and ankles and now involves palms and soles. He recently returned from a camping trip in North Carolina. What is the best treatment?

Infectious Diseases

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149

A hunter presents with high fever, painful swollen lymph nodes (buboes), and signs of sepsis. He had recent contact with dead rodents in New Mexico. What is the likely cause?

Infectious Diseases

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150

What is the treatment of choice for bubonic plague?

Infectious Diseases

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151

A man is bitten by a stray dog in India. The dog cannot be observed. He has never been vaccinated for rabies. What should be done?

Infectious Diseases

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152

Which antibiotic is recommended for dog or cat bite wounds to prevent infection?

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153

Which organism is most commonly associated with osteomyelitis following a puncture wound through a sneaker?

Infectious Diseases

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154

A farmer presents with a painless black ulcer on his hand after handling livestock. He is febrile with mild lymphadenopathy. What is the likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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155

What is the treatment for cutaneous anthrax?

Infectious Diseases

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156

Which bite carries the highest risk of infection?

Infectious Diseases

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157

What is the classic organism isolated in infected human bite wounds?

Infectious Diseases

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158

A man with a fever and ulcer on his hand after rabbit skinning is found to have painful lymphadenopathy. What is the diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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159

What is the treatment of choice for tularemia?

Infectious Diseases

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160

A patient develops a rash after hiking in the Ozarks. It starts on the wrists and ankles and spreads centrally. What is the most likely vector?

Infectious Diseases

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161

A neutropenic patient develops fever and pulmonary nodules with a halo sign on CT. What is the most likely pathogen?

Infectious Diseases

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162

What is the drug of choice for invasive aspergillosis?

Infectious Diseases

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163

A patient with uncontrolled diabetes presents with black necrotic nasal eschar and facial swelling. Likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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164

What is the initial treatment for mucormycosis?

Infectious Diseases

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165

A 35-year-old HIV patient presents with dysphagia and white plaques in the esophagus. What's the best initial treatment?

Infectious Diseases

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166

A patient presents with verrucous skin lesions and lytic bone lesions after travel to Mississippi. Sputum KOH shows broad-based budding yeast. Diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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167

A gardener presents with nodular lesions on her hand that spread along lymphatics. Likely diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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168

A traveler to sub-Saharan Africa needs malaria prophylaxis. Which of the following is most appropriate?

Infectious Diseases

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169

Which antimalarial is contraindicated in patients with G6PD deficiency?

Infectious Diseases

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170

A returning traveler from Nigeria presents with irregular fevers, chills, and hemolytic anemia. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms and banana-shaped gametocytes. What is the likely pathogen?

Infectious Diseases

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171

What is the treatment of choice for uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria?

Infectious Diseases

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172

What is the best drug to prevent relapse of P. vivax or P. ovale malaria?

Infectious Diseases

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173

What resistance pattern is common in Southeast Asia for malaria?

Infectious Diseases

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174

A patient with a history of malaria relapse has been treated with chloroquine twice. What drug should be added next time?

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175

What side effect is associated with mefloquine used for malaria prophylaxis?

Infectious Diseases

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176

What is the preferred malaria prophylaxis in a pregnant woman traveling to chloroquine-resistant area?

Infectious Diseases

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177

Which malaria species causes quartan fever pattern every 72 hours?

Infectious Diseases

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178

What should be monitored in a patient on primaquine therapy?

Infectious Diseases

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179

A blood smear shows Schüffner dots and enlarged RBCs. Which Plasmodium species is most likely?

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180

Which drug is used to treat severe malaria (e.g., cerebral malaria)?

Infectious Diseases

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181

Which component is not part of the CURB-65 pneumonia severity score?

Infectious Diseases

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182

A 78-year-old with CAP has confusion, RR 34, BP 85/55, and BUN 24. CURB-65 score?

Infectious Diseases

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183

At what CURB-65 score is hospitalization strongly recommended?

Infectious Diseases

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184

A woman with dysuria, frequency, and urgency. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. Most likely organism?

Infectious Diseases

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185

What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTI in women?

Infectious Diseases

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186

Which finding on urinalysis is most suggestive of pyelonephritis?

Infectious Diseases

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187

A 19-year-old woman with frequent UTIs is found to have urease-producing bacteria. Which is most likely?

Infectious Diseases

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188

Which bacteria is associated with endocarditis and occult colon cancer?

Infectious Diseases

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189

A 65-year-old man has Streptococcus bovis bacteremia. Which screening test is essential?

Infectious Diseases

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190

A farmer from Egypt presents with hematuria and urinary frequency. Cystoscopy shows squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder. Likely parasite?

Infectious Diseases

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191

How is Schistosoma haematobium infection diagnosed?

Infectious Diseases

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192

What is the drug of choice for treating schistosomiasis?

Infectious Diseases

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193

Which urinary finding is common in early Schistosoma haematobium infection?

Infectious Diseases

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194

What malignancy is associated with chronic Schistosoma haematobium infection?

Infectious Diseases

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195

A patient with spinal cord injury and chronic catheter develops a staghorn calculus. Likely organism?

Infectious Diseases

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196

Which organism is most likely to cause UTI in young sexually active females but is coagulase-negative?

Infectious Diseases

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197

A man with frequent catheter use presents with fever and chills. Blood and urine cultures grow Enterococcus. Treatment?

Infectious Diseases

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198

A patient with recent travel presents with persistent UTI unresponsive to ciprofloxacin. Extended-spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) producing E. coli is suspected. Next step?

Infectious Diseases

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199

What organism should be suspected in recurrent UTI cases linked with fecal incontinence and anaerobic growth?

Infectious Diseases

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200

A man with known bladder cancer has recurrent UTIs with urease-positive organisms and alkaline urine. Likely contributing factor?

Infectious Diseases

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201

A 10-year-old child from rural Brazil has periorbital swelling (Romaña sign), fever, and hepatosplenomegaly. Blood smear shows flagellated protozoa. What is the diagnosis?

Infectious Diseases

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202

What is the treatment of choice for acute Chagas disease?

Infectious Diseases

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203

A 4-year-old plays barefoot in contaminated soil and presents with itchy rash on the feet and iron deficiency anemia. Likely cause?

Infectious Diseases

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204

What is the first-line treatment for hookworm infection?

Infectious Diseases

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205

A child with rectal prolapse is found to have barrel-shaped eggs on stool exam. Most likely cause?

Infectious Diseases

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206

Which parasite causes autoinfection and is dangerous in immunosuppressed patients, leading to hyperinfection syndrome?

Infectious Diseases

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207

What is the drug of choice for Strongyloides infection?

Infectious Diseases

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208

A patient develops seizures after eating undercooked pork. CT brain shows cystic lesions with surrounding edema. Likely cause?

Infectious Diseases

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209

What is the treatment regimen for neurocysticercosis?

Infectious Diseases

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210

Which helminth is linked with hydatid cysts in the liver and has “eggshell” calcifications on imaging?

Infectious Diseases

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211

Which bacterial feature is responsible for carbapenem resistance in Klebsiella pneumoniae?

Infectious Diseases

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212

Which infection control measure is most effective in preventing hospital spread of antimicrobial-resistant organisms?

Infectious Diseases

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213

A 68-year-old man with a central line develops bacteremia with Klebsiella pneumoniae resistant to all beta-lactams, including carbapenems. Which mechanism best explains this resistance?

Infectious Diseases

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214

A 59-year-old dialysis patient with MRSA bacteremia is treated with vancomycin. Repeat cultures remain positive after 5 days. MIC to vancomycin is 2 µg/mL. What is the most appropriate next step?

Infectious Diseases

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215

A 67-year-old patient with a prosthetic valve develops VRE endocarditis. Blood cultures grow Enterococcus faecium. What is the most effective treatment?

Infectious Diseases

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216

Which mechanism is responsible for vancomycin resistance in Enterococcus species?

Infectious Diseases

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217

A patient is prescribed colistin for multidrug-resistant Acinetobacter. What is the drug’s mechanism of action?

Infectious Diseases

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218

Which of the following bacteria is most likely to resist fluoroquinolones via mutation in DNA gyrase (gyrA)?

Infectious Diseases

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219

What intervention most effectively reduces central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI) in ICU settings?

Infectious Diseases

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220

A patient receiving linezolid for MRSA pneumonia has been on therapy for 2 weeks. He now presents with easy bruising and fatigue. CBC shows thrombocytopenia. Next best step?

Infectious Diseases

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221

A patient in the ICU with a central line and Foley catheter has fever, leukocytosis, and no clear source of infection. What is the most appropriate next step?

Infectious Diseases

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222

A patient is being treated with meropenem for ESBL-producing E. coli. What side effect should be monitored with prolonged therapy?

Infectious Diseases

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223

A 30-year-old man returns from a hiking trip in Connecticut with a target-shaped rash on his thigh. He also complains of mild fever and fatigue. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Infectious Diseases

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224

A 42-year-old woman presents with bilateral facial nerve palsy and arthralgia weeks after a camping trip. She recalls having had a circular rash on her leg but did not seek treatment. What stage of Lyme disease is this?

Infectious Diseases

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225

A 60-year-old man who recently returned from a hiking trip in the Northeast presents with fever, hemolytic anemia, and jaundice. Blood smear shows intraerythrocytic rings and Maltese cross formations. What is the best treatment?

Infectious Diseases

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226

A 35-year-old traveler to Mexico presents with watery diarrhea, no blood or fever, and abdominal cramping. Stool culture is pending. What is the most likely organism?

Infectious Diseases

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227

A 5-year-old girl develops bloody diarrhea after eating undercooked ground beef at a picnic. She appears pale and lethargic. Labs show thrombocytopenia, anemia, and elevated creatinine. What should be avoided in management?

Infectious Diseases

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228

A 30-year-old man develops fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea with visible blood and mucus after eating raw chicken. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?

Infectious Diseases

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229

A 50-year-old man develops watery diarrhea 3 days after eating seafood on vacation. He is afebrile and mildly dehydrated. Stool shows no WBCs. Likely organism?

Infectious Diseases

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230

A 75-year-old woman develops profuse watery diarrhea, low-grade fever, and abdominal tenderness after a 10-day course of clindamycin. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

Infectious Diseases

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1

A 66-year-old man presents with right-sided weakness and aphasia. CT shows no hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate next step?

Neurology

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2

A patient with left-sided hemiparesis and hemisensory loss has eye deviation toward the right. Where is the lesion?

Neurology

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3

A 72-year-old woman presents with sudden thunderclap headache. What is the next best step?

Neurology

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4

A patient with a history of uncontrolled hypertension suddenly develops right-sided weakness and decreased consciousness. CT shows basal ganglia hemorrhage. What is the cause?

Neurology

QBank

5

Which of the following is a contraindication to tPA in stroke?

Neurology

QBank

6

A 24-year-old man presents with diplopia and right eye unable to look laterally. Which cranial nerve is affected?

Neurology

QBank

7

A 30-year-old woman with a history of migraines reports a visual aura followed by throbbing headache. Which drug is best for acute treatment?

Neurology

QBank

8

A patient presents with ascending symmetric weakness after a recent viral infection. CSF shows albuminocytologic dissociation. Diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

9

Which imaging finding is most associated with meningioma?

Neurology

QBank

10

A 45-year-old with right-sided facial droop can't raise right eyebrow. The lesion is likely:

Neurology

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11

A 60-year-old man with atrial fibrillation develops sudden hemiplegia. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

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12

What is the hallmark feature of an epidural hematoma on CT?

Neurology

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13

A young male presents with sharp periorbital pain, lacrimation, and nasal congestion lasting 30 minutes daily. Diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

14

Which CN lesion causes ptosis, mydriasis, and "down and out" eye position?

Neurology

QBank

15

A patient with Parkinson's disease develops confusion and hallucinations after medication adjustment. Which drug is most likely responsible?

Neurology

QBank

16

A patient with left arm weakness and dysarthria has a CT showing a small infarct in the internal capsule. Which stroke type is this?

Neurology

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17

A 5-year-old presents with morning headaches and vomiting. MRI shows a posterior fossa mass. Most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

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18

A patient presents with new-onset seizure. CT shows a ring-enhancing lesion. What is the most likely cause in an HIV-positive patient?

Neurology

QBank

19

A patient with recent head trauma develops headache, vomiting, and biconvex lesion on CT. Diagnosis?

Neurology

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20

A patient has facial weakness, hyperacusis, and can't close her eye. What else is expected?

Neurology

QBank

21

Which CN lesion leads to jaw deviation to the affected side?

Neurology

QBank

22

A 35-year-old woman presents with Lhermitte sign and optic neuritis. What is the best diagnostic test?

Neurology

QBank

23

What is the best initial step in evaluating suspected bacterial meningitis?

Neurology

QBank

24

A 30-year-old man develops left hemiparesis and sensory loss after a neck injury. His right-sided pain and temperature are lost. What syndrome?

Neurology

QBank

25

A patient with thunderclap headache has negative CT. What is the next step?

Neurology

QBank

26

A 68-year-old woman with a history of poorly controlled hypertension is brought to the ED after collapsing at home. On arrival, she is drowsy, with right-sided weakness and gaze deviation to the left. CT head reveals a large hyperdensity in the putamen extending into the internal capsule. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?

Neurology

QBank

27

A 31-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of double vision and difficulty walking. She also reports a sensation of electric shock running down her spine when she bends her neck. Neurologic exam reveals horizontal nystagmus, bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and positive Babinski signs. MRI of the brain shows periventricular white matter lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

28

A 50-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after a seizure. He has no prior history of epilepsy. On examination, he is confused with right-sided hemiparesis. CT scan shows a mass lesion with central necrosis and irregular ring enhancement in the left frontal lobe. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

29

A 25-year-old man presents with high fever, altered mental status, and seizures. He has a history of recent cold sores. CT is inconclusive, but MRI reveals temporal lobe hyperintensity. CSF shows lymphocytic pleocytosis with elevated protein and RBCs. What is the most likely cause of his condition?

Neurology

QBank

30

A 33-year-old woman comes to clinic with daily pulsatile headaches, nausea, and visual blurring. She is obese and taking oral contraceptives. On fundoscopy, you see bilateral papilledema. CT is normal. Lumbar puncture shows elevated opening pressure. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Neurology

QBank

31

A 58-year-old diabetic man develops fever, altered sensorium, and neck stiffness. His family reports that he had sinusitis 2 weeks ago. CT reveals a ring-enhancing lesion in the frontal lobe. What is the next best step?

Neurology

QBank

32

A 40-year-old man presents after sudden onset of severe occipital headache during sexual activity. He has photophobia and nausea. CT head is normal. What should be done next?

Neurology

QBank

33

A 45-year-old male has weakness of the right lower face, inability to wrinkle his forehead, and tearing from his right eye. He also has hyperacusis and loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue. Which of the following nerves is most likely affected?

Neurology

QBank

34

A 65-year-old man with poorly controlled hypertension and diabetes suddenly develops left-sided weakness and slurred speech. MRI shows a small infarct in the posterior limb of the internal capsule. What is the most likely mechanism?

Neurology

QBank

35

A 22-year-old man presents with a seizure. He has no prior history. MRI shows a non-enhancing lesion with calcification in the right temporal lobe. Biopsy shows oligodendrocytes with a “fried egg” appearance. Diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

36

A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of double vision that worsens throughout the day and improves with rest. On exam, he has ptosis and extraocular muscle weakness without pupillary involvement. His symptoms are exacerbated by sustained upward gaze. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

Neurology

QBank

37

A 72-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation and no anticoagulation presents with sudden right-sided hemiparesis and global aphasia. CT head shows a hypodense area in the distribution of the left MCA. What is the most likely mechanism of this stroke?

Neurology

QBank

38

A 30-year-old female presents with 2 weeks of progressive bilateral lower extremity weakness and urinary retention. She had a viral illness 10 days ago. Exam reveals symmetric leg weakness and a sensory level at the umbilicus. MRI spine shows a T10 hyperintense lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

39

A 56-year-old man with a history of colon cancer presents with new-onset seizures. MRI brain shows multiple ring-enhancing lesions at the gray-white junction. What is the most likely cause of his neurologic symptoms?

Neurology

QBank

40

A 70-year-old man with known Alzheimer’s disease is brought in by his daughter due to confusion and unsteady gait. He was recently started on a new medication for bladder incontinence. His vitals and labs are normal. Which medication is most likely responsible?

Neurology

QBank

41

A 64-year-old man presents with resting tremor, shuffling gait, and cogwheel rigidity. His handwriting has become small and illegible. Which neurotransmitter is deficient in his condition?

Neurology

QBank

42

A 19-year-old man is brought in after a motorbike accident. He is awake but unable to move any limbs. His eyes are open, and he can blink vertically but not horizontally. Which part of the brain is most likely injured?

Neurology

QBank

43

A 40-year-old female presents with a daily, dull, bilateral headache that is not worsened by physical activity and does not cause nausea or vomiting. She is under work stress but functions normally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

44

A 55-year-old man experiences sudden onset right eye ptosis, dilated pupil, and a "down and out" eye. He has poorly controlled diabetes. MRI is normal. What is the most likely etiology?

Neurology

QBank

45

A 29-year-old woman with recent onset of right facial weakness cannot raise her eyebrow or close her eye. Examination reveals loss of taste on the anterior tongue. MRI is normal. She was recently recovering from a cold. What is the most appropriate management?

Neurology

QBank

46

A 3-year-old child presents with morning vomiting and gait instability. MRI shows a midline posterior fossa mass compressing the 4th ventricle, leading to obstructive hydrocephalus. Which of the following is the most likely tumor?

Neurology

QBank

47

A 65-year-old man presents with confusion and inability to form new memories. He confabulates when asked about his recent past. Exam shows horizontal nystagmus. He is a chronic alcoholic. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

48

A 59-year-old man presents with right-sided facial droop, decreased hearing on the same side, and imbalance. MRI shows a mass at the cerebellopontine angle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

49

A 32-year-old woman presents with progressive visual loss in one eye over 2 days, associated with pain on eye movement. Fundoscopy shows a normal optic disc. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

50

A 48-year-old woman presents with episodes of brief, severe, electric shock-like pain in the right cheek triggered by touching her face. Neuro exam is normal between attacks. What is the first-line treatment?

Neurology

QBank

51

A 70-year-old man presents with progressive gait instability and frequent falls. His wife also reports memory difficulties and episodes of urinary incontinence. Neurological exam reveals magnetic gait. MRI brain shows enlarged ventricles with no cortical atrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

52

A 64-year-old woman presents with diplopia. She reports that the double vision worsens by evening and improves with rest. On physical exam, there is bilateral ptosis and weak extraocular movements. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

53

A 5-year-old boy is brought in due to seizures and developmental delay. He has ash-leaf spots and a shagreen patch on his back. Imaging reveals cortical tubers. Which condition is this child most likely to have?

Neurology

QBank

54

A 22-year-old male is found unconscious after using heroin. On arrival, he has pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and decreased level of consciousness. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?

Neurology

QBank

55

A 50-year-old man develops tremors that worsen with movement and improve at rest. He has a family history of similar tremors. Alcohol improves his symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

56

A 30-year-old woman presents with left eye pain and decreased vision. She reports color desaturation and pain with eye movement. Fundus exam is normal. What test will most likely support your suspected diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

57

A 72-year-old woman has trouble swallowing and hoarseness. She has right-sided uvula deviation and absent gag reflex. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

Neurology

QBank

58

A 68-year-old man with history of poorly controlled hypertension is found unconscious. CT reveals a large cerebellar hemorrhage compressing the fourth ventricle. What is the next best step in management?

Neurology

QBank

59

A 44-year-old woman presents with sharp stabbing pain over her left jaw that is triggered by chewing and wind blowing on her face. Neuro exam is normal. What is the first-line treatment?

Neurology

QBank

60

A 6-year-old boy presents with episodes of sudden loss of awareness for a few seconds, occurring multiple times a day. He immediately resumes activity afterward with no confusion. EEG shows 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharges. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Neurology

QBank

61

A 60-year-old man presents with weakness of the left upper and lower limbs. On exam, there is increased tone, brisk reflexes, and upgoing plantar reflex on the left side. No sensory deficit is noted. Where is the most likely site of lesion?

Neurology

QBank

62

A 48-year-old man presents with progressive stiffness, slurred speech, and muscle twitching. Exam shows fasciculations, increased tone, and brisk reflexes in both upper and lower limbs. Sensation is intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

63

A 23-year-old woman reports painful neck stiffness, fever, and photophobia. She is alert but uncomfortable. Physical exam shows positive Brudzinski and Kernig signs. What is the best next step in management?

Neurology

QBank

64

A 35-year-old man presents with new-onset ataxia, vertigo, and dysarthria. CT scan is unremarkable, but MRI shows infarction of the left lateral medulla. What other symptom is likely present?

Neurology

QBank

65

A 30-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis presents with bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO). What neurological structure is affected?

Neurology

QBank

66

A 55-year-old man has a seizure and is found to have a solitary ring-enhancing lesion in the brain with significant surrounding edema. He owns several cats and is HIV positive. His CD4 count is 45/mm³. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

67

A 78-year-old woman suddenly loses vision in her right eye. Fundoscopy shows a cherry-red spot and pale retina. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

68

A 50-year-old man presents with progressive behavioral changes, personality changes, and memory loss over several months. MRI shows frontal and temporal lobe atrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

69

A 33-year-old woman presents with sudden severe headache, nausea, and photophobia. She is alert but irritable. CT scan is normal. Lumbar puncture reveals xanthochromia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

70

A 44-year-old man with diabetes presents with sudden onset of diplopia. His right eye is deviated down and out, with ptosis. Pupillary light reflex is intact. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

71

A 42-year-old man presents with rapidly progressing cognitive decline, myoclonus, and ataxia. His family reports personality changes and memory loss over the past month. EEG shows periodic sharp wave complexes, and MRI reveals hyperintensity in the basal ganglia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

72

A 59-year-old man with hypertension suddenly develops slurred speech and right facial weakness. He can raise both eyebrows. He has intact limb strength. Where is the lesion located?

Neurology

QBank

73

A 32-year-old woman has 3 months of increasing right-sided hearing loss and imbalance. She also has facial numbness. MRI shows a mass at the cerebellopontine angle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

74

A 27-year-old woman presents with episodes of sudden, brief, stabbing pain in the right cheek. The pain is triggered by chewing and cold wind. Neuro exam is normal. What is the drug of choice?

Neurology

QBank

75

A 63-year-old man is brought in after falling while walking. He has bradykinesia, resting tremor, and a shuffling gait. His facial expression is reduced, and there is cogwheel rigidity. What is the pathologic mechanism?

Neurology

QBank

76

A 6-month-old infant is brought in with a bulging fontanelle, irritability, and fever. LP reveals high opening pressure, neutrophilic pleocytosis, elevated protein, and low glucose. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

77

A 34-year-old man has episodes of sudden muscle weakness triggered by laughter. He has excessive daytime sleepiness and reports hallucinations when falling asleep. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

78

A 29-year-old man develops blurred vision and eye pain. Symptoms worsen with eye movement. His visual acuity is decreased, and fundus exam is normal. He has a prior history of paresthesia and fatigue that resolved spontaneously. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

79

A 72-year-old woman presents with memory loss, getting lost in familiar places, and difficulty performing daily tasks. She repeats questions and misplaces items. Neurologic exam is otherwise unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

80

A 5-year-old boy is brought in with frequent falls, difficulty walking, and loss of coordination. He also has dilated blood vessels on the sclera. Lab results show elevated AFP. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

81

A 69-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with acute left-sided hemiplegia and hemisensory loss. He is also unable to speak but appears to understand commands. A CT head shows no hemorrhage. What is the most likely location of the infarct?

Neurology

QBank

82

A 28-year-old woman has recurrent migraines with aura. She presents to the emergency department with sudden onset speech difficulty and right-sided weakness. CT scan is normal. What is the most appropriate next step?

Neurology

QBank

83

A 61-year-old man with diabetes presents with "foot drop" and weakness in dorsiflexion of the right ankle. He also has sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and lateral shin. Reflexes are normal. What is the most likely site of lesion?

Neurology

QBank

84

A 36-year-old HIV-positive man presents with gradually worsening weakness in all four limbs, areflexia, and new urinary incontinence. MRI spine shows a signal abnormality in the thoracic spinal cord. CSF is positive for JC virus. What is the diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

85

A 40-year-old man presents with sudden right eye vision loss and left-sided hemiparesis. Fundoscopy reveals a pale retina with a cherry-red spot. MRI reveals a right-sided stroke. What cardiac condition should be considered?

Neurology

QBank

86

A 56-year-old man develops tremors, hallucinations, and cognitive decline. He also has Parkinsonian features. Symptoms began one year after his diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

87

A 70-year-old male with a history of prostate cancer develops sudden-onset leg weakness and urinary retention. Exam shows hyperreflexia and a sensory level at T10. What is the best next step?

Neurology

QBank

88

A 3-week-old baby presents with a bulging fontanelle, seizures, and poor feeding. MRI shows periventricular calcifications. What congenital infection is most likely?

Neurology

QBank

89

A 65-year-old diabetic man has an episode of transient right-sided weakness and speech difficulty that resolves within 30 minutes. CT scan is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Neurology

QBank

90

A 24-year-old man presents with sudden back pain, paraplegia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the umbilicus. Vibration and proprioception are preserved. What spinal syndrome is this?

Neurology

QBank

91

A 40-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of progressive fatigue, diplopia at the end of the day, and difficulty chewing food. Neurological examination is normal in the morning but worsens by evening. Which test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

92

A 7-year-old child has seizures characterized by sudden loss of consciousness and generalized stiffening followed by rhythmic jerking lasting 2 minutes. Postictally, he is confused and tired. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

Neurology

QBank

93

A 76-year-old woman reports a tremor in both hands when reaching for objects. She has no rigidity or postural instability. Her symptoms improve after a glass of wine. Which of the following medications is most appropriate?

Neurology

QBank

94

A 5-year-old boy has frequent staring episodes during which he is unresponsive and stops activity briefly. EEG shows 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharges. Which drug is preferred?

Neurology

QBank

95

A 25-year-old man presents with sudden-onset weakness and numbness of both legs. He has urinary retention and a sensory level at the umbilicus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

96

A 70-year-old man is noted to have vertical gaze palsy, falls, axial rigidity, and frontal lobe dysfunction. He has poor response to levodopa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

97

A 60-year-old man with longstanding diabetes presents with a burning sensation in both feet, especially at night. He also has decreased ankle reflexes. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

98

A 20-year-old woman has episodes of loss of consciousness with stiffening and rhythmic jerking, followed by confusion and fatigue. EEG is ordered. What pattern is expected during the seizure?

Neurology

QBank

99

A 29-year-old man presents with behavioral changes, confusion, and new-onset seizures. MRI shows hyperintensity in the temporal lobes. CSF reveals lymphocytic pleocytosis with RBCs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

100

A 68-year-old woman is brought in for altered mental status. She is disoriented, inattentive, and has visual hallucinations. Her symptoms started abruptly and fluctuate during the day. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

101

A 65-year-old man with long-standing diabetes presents with an ulcer over the plantar surface of his foot. He also has loss of vibration and position sense in both feet. Neurological exam shows absent ankle reflexes bilaterally. What is the most likely underlying pathology?

Neurology

QBank

102

A 7-year-old boy is brought in for episodes where he stares blankly and stops speaking for 10 seconds. These episodes occur multiple times a day and he is unaware of them. What is the most characteristic EEG finding?

Neurology

QBank

103

A 64-year-old man with Alzheimer’s disease is brought in for worsening confusion, urinary incontinence, and unsteady gait over 2 months. MRI shows enlarged ventricles without cortical atrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

104

A 30-year-old woman presents with left eye visual loss and pain on movement. She had prior episodes of limb numbness and tingling. MRI shows multiple periventricular white matter lesions. What is the most appropriate acute treatment?

Neurology

QBank

105

A 45-year-old man presents with back pain, fever, and difficulty walking. He has urinary retention and a sensory level at T8. MRI spine shows an epidural mass compressing the spinal cord. What is the next best step?

Neurology

QBank

106

A 38-year-old man has a seizure after swimming. He reports fatigue and generalized muscle cramps. Labs show hyponatremia. What electrolyte abnormality is most likely responsible for the seizure?

Neurology

QBank

107

A 60-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with right arm and leg weakness. CT head shows an area of hypodensity in the left internal capsule. What is the most likely mechanism of her stroke?

Neurology

QBank

108

A 50-year-old man is brought in after head trauma from a fall. He had a brief loss of consciousness, followed by a lucid interval, and then sudden deterioration. CT head shows a lens-shaped hyperdense lesion. What is the diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

109

A 55-year-old man with diabetes develops burning foot pain, especially at night. Exam reveals decreased pinprick and temperature sensation, but normal reflexes and proprioception. What type of fibers are primarily affected?

Neurology

QBank

110

A 42-year-old man develops fatigue, weakness, and fasciculations in the arms. He also has spasticity and hyperreflexia in the legs. Sensory exam is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

111

A 70-year-old woman presents with visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognition, and parkinsonian features. Her symptoms began with memory changes and hallucinations before the onset of motor features. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

112

A 65-year-old man presents with unsteady gait, numbness in both feet, and difficulty sensing joint position. He has a history of chronic alcohol use. Vitals are stable. Neurologic exam shows positive Romberg sign. What vitamin deficiency is most likely?

Neurology

QBank

113

A 28-year-old woman presents with progressive right eye vision loss, pain with eye movement, and decreased color vision. Fundus exam is normal. MRI reveals multiple periventricular lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

114

A 45-year-old man has new-onset seizures and an MRI shows multiple ring-enhancing lesions. He is HIV positive and has a CD4 count of 35. Which medication is most appropriate initially?

Neurology

QBank

115

A 10-year-old boy presents with progressive clumsiness, kyphoscoliosis, and difficulty walking. Exam shows dysarthria, lower limb areflexia, and bilateral foot deformities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

116

A 75-year-old man is brought in for altered mental status. He was recently started on a new antihistamine for allergies. He is disoriented, hallucinating, and has dry mucous membranes. What is the likely mechanism?

Neurology

QBank

117

A 23-year-old college student collapses during an exam. Witnesses describe brief stiffening and jerking movements followed by confusion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Neurology

QBank

118

A 40-year-old woman complains of right-sided facial droop, inability to close her right eye, and loss of taste on the anterior tongue. She recently had a viral illness. Which of the following is most appropriate management?

Neurology

QBank

119

A 33-year-old woman presents with vertigo, diplopia, and difficulty swallowing. Exam shows right facial numbness and left-sided limb weakness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

120

A 50-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis presents with increased spasticity and muscle stiffness. She has no new neurologic deficits. Which medication would help manage her spasticity?

Neurology

QBank

121

A 62-year-old man presents with complaints of right arm weakness and slurred speech. Examination reveals right lower facial droop and decreased strength in the right arm and leg. He is unable to repeat phrases but can follow commands. CT head is unremarkable. What is the most likely type of aphasia?

Neurology

QBank

122

A 58-year-old man presents with resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. He has been started on levodopa therapy, which initially improved symptoms. Months later, he develops involuntary facial movements and writhing of his hands. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

123

A 43-year-old man presents with multiple episodes of brief, electric shock-like pain over the right side of his face, triggered by wind and chewing. Neurologic exam is normal. Which condition should be considered if MRI shows a demyelinating lesion in the brainstem?

Neurology

QBank

124

A 29-year-old woman presents with right-sided ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis. She reports recent neck and shoulder pain. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

Neurology

QBank

125

A 56-year-old man presents with forgetfulness, urinary incontinence, and gait instability. He has a wide-based gait and shuffling steps. MRI brain reveals enlarged ventricles without cortical atrophy. What test is both diagnostic and therapeutic?

Neurology

QBank

126

A 34-year-old man presents with a severe headache and left eye pain. On exam, he has complete ptosis, a fixed dilated pupil, and eye deviated down and out. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

127

A 26-year-old man has a witnessed seizure with tongue biting and urinary incontinence. He is confused afterward. This is his first seizure. What investigation should be performed urgently?

Neurology

QBank

128

A 72-year-old woman presents with memory loss, unsteady gait, and urinary incontinence. She was diagnosed with Alzheimer's two years ago. MRI shows enlarged ventricles but preserved cortical volume. What is the most appropriate intervention?

Neurology

QBank

129

A 22-year-old woman presents with bilateral lower extremity weakness and areflexia following a diarrheal illness 10 days ago. What is the most appropriate next step?

Neurology

QBank

130

A 45-year-old man presents with gradually worsening weakness in the hands, muscle wasting, and hyperreflexia in the legs. No sensory deficits are noted. EMG shows both upper and lower motor neuron involvement. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

131

A 60-year-old man has difficulty swallowing, nasal speech, and frequent choking. Neurologic exam reveals absent gag reflex, nasal regurgitation, and weakness of the palate. What cranial nerves are likely involved?

Neurology

QBank

132

A 73-year-old man presents with progressive resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Despite good control with levodopa, he later develops visual hallucinations and confusion. Which drug is contributing to his symptoms?

Neurology

QBank

133

A 58-year-old woman presents with new-onset headache and jaw claudication. She has scalp tenderness over the right temple. ESR is 85 mm/hr. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Neurology

QBank

134

A 17-year-old male presents with progressive gait ataxia, dysarthria, and loss of vibration sense. He has scoliosis and high plantar arches. What cardiac condition is associated with this disorder?

Neurology

QBank

135

A 55-year-old diabetic man has progressive numbness in his hands and feet. He also has postural hypotension and erectile dysfunction. What type of nerve fibers are involved?

Neurology

QBank

136

A 66-year-old woman reports unsteadiness while walking and difficulty initiating movement. She often feels “stuck” when trying to walk through doorways. Which is the most likely underlying disorder?

Neurology

QBank

137

A 62-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer develops confusion, headache, and vomiting. MRI shows vasogenic edema in the right parietal lobe. What is the most appropriate next step?

Neurology

QBank

138

A 48-year-old man presents with bilateral leg weakness and ascending numbness. He has been unable to urinate. Reflexes are absent. CSF shows elevated protein with normal cell count. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

139

A 68-year-old man presents with acute right facial weakness, inability to close his eye, and loss of nasolabial fold. He cannot wrinkle his forehead. What type of lesion is this?

Neurology

QBank

140

A 26-year-old man presents after a car accident. He has flaccid paralysis and areflexia in both legs with absent sensation. After 48 hours, reflexes return and spasticity develops. What is the initial phase called?

Neurology

QBank

141

A 65-year-old man presents with memory impairment, apathy, and urinary incontinence. Gait is slow and wide-based. MRI reveals ventriculomegaly without cortical atrophy. What finding after lumbar puncture supports the diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

142

A 40-year-old man presents with sudden severe headache and photophobia. CT head is negative. LP shows xanthochromia. What is the next step in management?

Neurology

QBank

143

A 32-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis reports worsening spasticity in her legs. What is the first-line pharmacologic therapy?

Neurology

QBank

144

A 25-year-old male presents with gradual bilateral hand weakness, difficulty gripping, and fasciculations. Reflexes are brisk in the lower limbs. Sensory exam is normal. Which finding on EMG confirms the diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

145

A 70-year-old woman has sudden-onset right hemiplegia and right-sided facial droop. She has global aphasia. Which artery is most likely occluded?

Neurology

QBank

146

A 65-year-old woman with a history of diabetes and hypertension develops sudden-onset left-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. She is found to have an expressive aphasia and right-sided hemiparesis. What is the most likely site of lesion?

Neurology

QBank

147

A 70-year-old woman presents with worsening memory, personality changes, and disinhibition. MRI reveals bilateral atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

148

A 55-year-old man presents with difficulty swallowing and hoarseness. His voice has become progressively weaker over the past few months. Exam reveals reduced palatal elevation, and there is weakness of the uvula on the right side. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

149

A 22-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss in one eye, pain with eye movement, and loss of color vision. She has a history of intermittent numbness and tingling in her legs that resolved spontaneously. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

150

A 68-year-old man presents with progressive memory loss, difficulty finding words, and poor judgment. He has a history of hypertension and diabetes. MRI reveals bilateral hippocampal atrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

151

A 75-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and photophobia. CT head is negative for hemorrhage. What is the next most appropriate step?

Neurology

QBank

152

A 62-year-old man presents with left-sided weakness, facial droop, and difficulty speaking. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and hypertension. CT head shows a small infarct in the right basal ganglia. What is the most likely etiology of his stroke?

Neurology

QBank

153

A 38-year-old woman presents with progressive fatigue, muscle weakness, and diplopia. She has had several episodes of blurred vision that resolve after a few hours. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

154

A 35-year-old woman presents with vertigo, nausea, and unsteady gait. She reports a "spinning" sensation that worsens when she turns her head. MRI brain shows a lesion in the vestibular nuclei. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

155

A 59-year-old man presents with left-sided hemiparesis and hemisensory loss. He also has homonymous hemianopia and is unaware of his deficits. Which artery is most likely affected?

Neurology

QBank

156

A 60-year-old hypertensive man presents with sudden headache, vomiting, and loss of consciousness. CT head shows a large hemorrhage in the right basal ganglia. What is the most likely mechanism?

Neurology

QBank

157

A 72-year-old man presents with sudden-onset vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. He is unable to walk. Examination reveals left-sided ataxia and nystagmus. CT head is normal. What is the most appropriate next step?

Neurology

QBank

158

A 68-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset right hemiplegia and expressive aphasia. What cerebral artery is most likely occluded?

Neurology

QBank

159

A 61-year-old man with poorly controlled hypertension has a sudden loss of consciousness. CT scan reveals a large pontine hemorrhage. What clinical feature is most characteristic?

Neurology

QBank

160

A 70-year-old woman presents with left-sided weakness and decreased sensation in both the arm and leg. Her speech and cognition are intact. Where is the lesion most likely located?

Neurology

QBank

161

A 64-year-old woman develops sudden weakness of her left arm and leg. She has urinary incontinence and signs of abulia (lack of initiative). Where is the most likely site of infarct?

Neurology

QBank

162

A 60-year-old man with diabetes experiences sudden-onset left hemiparesis. CT is negative. BP is 190/100 mmHg. What is the most likely type of stroke?

Neurology

QBank

163

A 70-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation suddenly develops left hemiparesis and left hemisensory loss. Which diagnostic test is most helpful in identifying the cause?

Neurology

QBank

164

A 75-year-old man with right homonymous hemianopia and no motor or language deficits most likely had a stroke in which vascular territory?

Neurology

QBank

165

A 58-year-old man presents with vertigo, diplopia, dysarthria, and right-sided weakness. CT is normal. What is the next best step in diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

166

A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided facial droop and left-sided limb weakness. Where is the most likely lesion?

Neurology

QBank

167

A 76-year-old woman has fluctuating mental status, Parkinsonism, and vivid visual hallucinations. Which medication should be avoided?

Neurology

QBank

168

A 72-year-old man has sudden-onset right hemiparesis and global aphasia. CT is negative. BP is 200/110 mmHg. What should be done before giving tPA?

Neurology

QBank

169

A 66-year-old man has recurrent falls, bradykinesia, and vertical gaze palsy. He also shows poor response to levodopa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

170

A 64-year-old man presents with memory loss, word-finding difficulty, and difficulty managing finances. What cognitive domain is most affected early in Alzheimer’s disease?

Neurology

QBank

171

A 3-year-old child presents with developmental delay, seizures, and a facial port-wine stain involving the V1 distribution. MRI reveals leptomeningeal enhancement. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

172

A 22-year-old male experiences sudden weakness in his right arm and slurred speech after a neck manipulation at a chiropractic session. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

173

A 34-year-old woman experiences transient vision loss in one eye when she stands up. She also reports headaches and pulsatile tinnitus. On exam, there is bilateral papilledema. What test will confirm the diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

174

A 42-year-old man complains of double vision that worsens throughout the day. On examination, there is ptosis and impaired extraocular movements. His symptoms improve with rest. What is the most appropriate confirmatory test?

Neurology

QBank

175

A 69-year-old woman presents with progressive difficulty initiating movement, axial rigidity, and postural instability. Vertical gaze is impaired. MRI shows midbrain atrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

176

A 4-year-old child presents with ataxia, oculocutaneous telangiectasias, and recurrent infections. Laboratory tests reveal low IgA. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

177

A 48-year-old man presents with insidious personality change, disinhibition, and loss of empathy. His memory is relatively intact. MRI shows frontal and temporal lobe atrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

178

A 35-year-old woman develops left-sided facial weakness. She cannot close her eye or raise her eyebrow. No rash is seen. She recently had a cold. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Neurology

QBank

179

A 60-year-old man experiences acute loss of consciousness, followed by flaccid paralysis and absent brainstem reflexes. CT shows massive pontine hemorrhage. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

180

A 34-year-old woman presents with multiple episodes of brief, sudden muscle jerks in the morning, especially after waking up. She has also had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

181

A 40-year-old man presents with headache, low-grade fever, and confusion. He recently traveled to Arizona. MRI reveals temporal lobe lesions, and CSF culture grows spherules. What is the likely pathogen?

Neurology

QBank

182

A 6-year-old boy presents with high fever, seizures, and vomiting. CSF shows eosinophils and elevated opening pressure. He recently swam in a warm freshwater lake. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

183

A 59-year-old man is brought in with confusion, ataxia, and abnormal eye movements. He is a chronic alcoholic. Neurologic exam shows nystagmus, wide-based gait, and horizontal gaze palsy. What vitamin deficiency is the likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

184

A 7-year-old boy has multiple daily seizures characterized by brief lapses in awareness. He is unaware of the events and resumes activity immediately. EEG shows 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharges. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Neurology

QBank

185

A 26-year-old woman has multiple episodes of electric shock-like pain down her spine when she flexes her neck. She also complains of leg numbness. What condition is most likely responsible?

Neurology

QBank

186

A 35-year-old man presents with acute, severe headache, nausea, and nuchal rigidity. CT head is normal. LP reveals elevated opening pressure and xanthochromia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

187

A 58-year-old man with diabetes presents with new-onset foot drop and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot. Reflexes are preserved. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

188

A 68-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease is started on carbidopa-levodopa. Two weeks later, he reports new involuntary writhing movements of the face and limbs. What is the cause?

Neurology

QBank

189

A 43-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in one eye. Fundoscopy shows a pale retina with a cherry-red spot. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

190

A 54-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer develops lower back pain and urinary retention. Exam shows lower limb weakness and hyperreflexia. What is the most appropriate initial step?

Neurology

QBank

191

A 19-year-old woman presents with 4-hour history of sudden right arm weakness. She is on oral contraceptives and smokes. CT head is normal. What is the next best step?

Neurology

QBank

192

A 72-year-old woman presents with difficulty speaking, right facial droop, and right arm weakness. She is unable to repeat phrases, though comprehension is intact. What type of aphasia is this?

Neurology

QBank

193

A 65-year-old woman has a wide-based, shuffling gait and urinary incontinence. She struggles with memory and focus. MRI shows enlarged ventricles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

194

A 23-year-old man presents with right-sided weakness and numbness after scuba diving. He also complains of shortness of breath. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

195

A 29-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis reports new bladder urgency and incontinence. She urinates frequently but incompletely. What is the underlying cause?

Neurology

QBank

196

A 9-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder begins to lose motor skills and develop seizures. EEG shows high-amplitude slow spike-and-wave patterns. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

197

A 52-year-old woman has persistent tingling and burning in her right hand, made worse by wrist movements. Tinel's sign is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

198

A 66-year-old man presents with resting tremor, cogwheel rigidity, and bradykinesia. What brain structure is most likely degenerated?

Neurology

QBank

199

A 30-year-old man has sudden onset of vertigo, nausea, and inability to walk. He had a recent URI. Head impulse test is positive. Hearing is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

200

A 72-year-old man presents with bilateral leg weakness and urinary retention. Exam shows flaccid paralysis and loss of all sensation in the perianal region. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

201

A 5-year-old boy presents with headaches that wake him from sleep and vomiting in the morning. Neurologic exam shows papilledema and sixth nerve palsy. What is the next best investigation?

Neurology

QBank

202

A 28-year-old man experiences generalized tonic-clonic seizures. EEG shows generalized 4–6 Hz polyspike and wave discharges. What is the most appropriate long-term treatment?

Neurology

QBank

203

A 3-year-old boy is unable to speak clearly and drags his left leg. Birth history revealed perinatal hypoxia. Neurologic exam shows spasticity and hyperreflexia in the left leg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

204

A 68-year-old woman develops progressive weakness and fasciculations in the limbs. Her reflexes are brisk. No sensory loss is noted. EMG shows widespread denervation. What is the likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

205

A 70-year-old man has a sudden fall with transient loss of consciousness. On regaining consciousness, he is alert but confused. CT head shows crescent-shaped hematoma. What is the diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

206

A 72-year-old man presents with sudden right-sided weakness and aphasia. Non-contrast CT shows no hemorrhage. He is within the 3-hour window from symptom onset. What is the next best step?

Neurology

QBank

207

A 66-year-old woman presents with left arm and leg weakness. CT reveals an infarct in the right anterior cerebral artery (ACA) territory. Which finding is most expected?

Neurology

QBank

208

A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided facial droop and arm weakness. He is unable to smile or close his eye on the right and cannot wrinkle his forehead. What kind of lesion is most likely?

Neurology

QBank

209

A 68-year-old woman presents with sudden dizziness, nausea, and left-sided weakness. Exam shows left facial weakness, right-sided limb weakness, and dysphagia. What is the likely location of infarction?

Neurology

QBank

210

A 58-year-old man has right-sided weakness and global aphasia. What artery is most likely involved?

Neurology

QBank

211

A 75-year-old man presents with sudden-onset left hemiparesis. Non-contrast CT shows a hyperdense right basal ganglia. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

212

A 65-year-old man with atrial fibrillation develops sudden vision loss in his left eye. Fundoscopy reveals retinal pallor with a cherry-red spot. What is the next best step?

Neurology

QBank

213

A 70-year-old man presents with right hemiparesis and right facial droop. He cannot repeat phrases but understands commands. What is the likely lesion location?

Neurology

QBank

214

A 62-year-old woman presents with sudden loss of coordination and difficulty standing. Exam reveals nystagmus, dysmetria, and intention tremor. What vascular territory is most likely affected?

Neurology

QBank

215

A 55-year-old man presents with confusion and slurred speech. He was found wandering. CT head is normal. Glucose is 35 mg/dL. After dextrose, he returns to baseline. What is the cause of his symptoms?

Neurology

QBank

216

A 68-year-old woman with diabetes and hypertension presents with left-sided hemiparesis. CT shows no bleed. tPA is administered. What is the most feared complication?

Neurology

QBank

217

A 70-year-old man presents with left homonymous hemianopia. He can speak and move normally. Where is the lesion?

Neurology

QBank

218

A 58-year-old man has multiple episodes of right arm weakness that resolve within 10 minutes. He is hypertensive and a smoker. What is the most appropriate next step?

Neurology

QBank

219

A 76-year-old woman presents with acute left-sided weakness and speech difficulty. BP is 190/105. She is within 3 hours of onset. CT is negative. What should be done before tPA?

Neurology

QBank

220

A patient has a stroke affecting the internal capsule. What type of deficit is expected?

Neurology

QBank

221

A 64-year-old woman experiences sudden right-sided weakness and cannot look to the left. Her eyes deviate toward the right. What is the most likely location of the stroke?

Neurology

QBank

222

A 70-year-old man has acute right-sided facial droop, right arm weakness, and slurred speech. He can raise both eyebrows. Where is the lesion?

Neurology

QBank

223

A 55-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss in the left visual field of both eyes. What type of stroke is most likely?

Neurology

QBank

224

A 68-year-old man with hypertension presents with a sudden, severe headache and collapse. CT shows blood in the basal cisterns. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

225

A 60-year-old man develops hemiparesis following a stroke. After rehabilitation, he walks with circumduction of the affected leg and flexion of the arm. What is this gait pattern called?

Neurology

QBank

226

A patient has a right-sided MCA infarct. Which of the following deficits is most likely?

Neurology

QBank

227

A 61-year-old hypertensive man presents with sudden right-sided weakness and speech difficulty. He is unable to comprehend or repeat. What type of aphasia is this?

Neurology

QBank

228

A 68-year-old woman develops sudden vertigo, diplopia, and dysphagia. Exam shows right-sided ataxia and left-sided body weakness. What syndrome is this?

Neurology

QBank

229

A 55-year-old woman presents with right-sided facial droop, hearing loss, and imbalance. What lesion location explains her symptoms?

Neurology

QBank

230

A 45-year-old woman develops sudden right hemiparesis and right-sided facial weakness. She has no sensory loss. What type of stroke is this?

Neurology

QBank

231

A 63-year-old man presents with sudden onset of dysarthria and clumsiness of his left hand. He is hypertensive and diabetic. CT head is normal. What is the most likely cause?

Neurology

QBank

232

A patient presents with sudden left hemiparesis. His blood pressure is 210/110 mmHg. CT confirms right-sided intracerebral hemorrhage. What is the target BP before initiating treatment?

Neurology

QBank

233

A 55-year-old man presents with acute left arm and leg weakness. MRI shows a small subcortical infarct. What is the underlying pathology?

Neurology

QBank

234

A 70-year-old woman has a left MCA stroke. Which of the following symptoms is most specific for this location?

Neurology

QBank

235

A 62-year-old man presents with transient right-sided weakness and dysarthria that resolved in 20 minutes. What investigation is most urgent to prevent future stroke?

Neurology

QBank

236

A 65-year-old man presents with sudden onset of bilateral leg weakness and urinary incontinence. Sensory level is noted at T10. What type of stroke is most likely?

Neurology

QBank

237

A 45-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion and right-sided weakness. What stroke mechanism is most likely?

Neurology

QBank

238

A 70-year-old man with diabetes presents with a pure sensory stroke. What structure is most likely affected?

Neurology

QBank

239

A 55-year-old hypertensive man experiences a sudden severe headache and becomes unconscious. CT reveals a cerebellar hemorrhage. What is the most immediate threat?

Neurology

QBank

240

A 50-year-old woman has sudden-onset visual hallucinations and left homonymous hemianopia. She remains alert. What is the likely site of infarct?

Neurology

QBank

241

A 72-year-old woman presents with progressive memory loss, word-finding difficulty, and disorientation. MRI shows bilateral hippocampal atrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

242

A 65-year-old man presents with Parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and fluctuating attention. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

243

A 60-year-old woman presents with gradual personality changes, apathy, and poor hygiene. MRI shows bilateral frontal lobe atrophy. Which feature is most characteristic of her condition?

Neurology

QBank

244

A 68-year-old man has a resting tremor, bradykinesia, and cogwheel rigidity. He has a shuffling gait with decreased arm swing. What is the primary neurotransmitter deficit?

Neurology

QBank

245

A 52-year-old man presents with progressive difficulty walking, dysarthria, and a family history of similar symptoms. MRI shows cerebellar atrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

246

A 59-year-old woman has progressive muscle stiffness and frequent falls. Exam shows axial rigidity, vertical gaze palsy, and a poor response to levodopa. What is the diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

247

A 45-year-old man presents with choreiform movements, personality changes, and depression. His father died young from a similar condition. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

248

A 67-year-old woman with Alzheimer’s disease is prescribed donepezil. What is the mechanism of action?

Neurology

QBank

249

A 60-year-old man with Parkinson’s develops visual hallucinations and confusion after increasing his carbidopa-levodopa dose. What should be done?

Neurology

QBank

250

A 55-year-old man presents with dysarthria, muscle atrophy, and brisk reflexes. Sensory exam is normal. EMG shows widespread denervation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

251

A 65-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease presents with severe orthostatic hypotension, urinary incontinence, and erectile dysfunction. What condition should be suspected?

Neurology

QBank

252

A 56-year-old man presents with asymmetric limb rigidity, apraxia, and dystonia. He also exhibits cortical sensory loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

253

A 72-year-old woman is noted to have decreased arm swing, soft voice, and short shuffling steps. She does not tremble. What is the likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

254

A 40-year-old man presents with personality change, poor impulse control, and compulsive behaviors. His father died young of a similar condition. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

255

A patient with Alzheimer’s disease becomes increasingly aggressive. What is the best initial management?

Neurology

QBank

256

A 68-year-old man is started on rivastigmine for mild Alzheimer’s disease. He reports nausea and abdominal cramping. What is the mechanism of these side effects?

Neurology

QBank

257

A 58-year-old woman has early-onset dementia with difficulty naming objects, fluent but empty speech, and word substitutions. What subtype of FTD does she have?

Neurology

QBank

258

A 75-year-old man with Parkinson’s has worsening mobility and depression. Which medication treats both?

Neurology

QBank

259

A 70-year-old man with Alzheimer’s shows rapid decline and myoclonus. EEG shows periodic sharp wave complexes. What is the likely diagnosis?

Neurology

QBank

260

A 76-year-old woman presents with apathy, impaired judgment, and urinary incontinence. MRI shows ventriculomegaly with normal brain parenchyma. What is the treatment?

Neurology

QBank

1

A 29-year-old woman at 7 weeks gestation presents with persistent vomiting, weight loss, and ketonuria. Labs show mildly elevated liver enzymes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

2

A 34-year-old G2P1 at 33 weeks gestation reports sudden-onset intense itching on her palms and soles, worse at night. Labs show elevated bile acids. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

3

A 30-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation has painful vaginal bleeding and a firm, tender uterus. Fetal heart tones are absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

4

A 23-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals no intrauterine pregnancy and a β-hCG of 2800. What is the next best step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

5

A woman at 38 weeks gestation has a gush of fluid from her vagina. On exam, pooling and positive nitrazine and ferning are present. No contractions or cervical change. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

6

A 25-year-old G1P0 at 40 weeks’ gestation presents with labor contractions. Fetal heart tracing shows early decelerations. What is the most likely cause?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

7

A pregnant woman at 35 weeks presents with BP of 155/100 mmHg, proteinuria, and hyperreflexia. What is the definitive treatment?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

8

A 29-year-old postpartum woman presents with inability to lactate, fatigue, and cold intolerance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

9

Which of the following findings is most consistent with a molar pregnancy?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

10

A 32-year-old woman complains of pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and infertility. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

11

What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage within 24 hours of delivery?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

12

A woman has regular contractions every 3 minutes and 6 cm dilation for 6 hours without progress. What is the diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

13

Which of the following is the most common cause of first-trimester pregnancy loss?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

14

Which test is most specific for confirming ruptured membranes?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

15

A 24-year-old presents with fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia 5 days postpartum. Most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

16

A 26-year-old G2P1 comes for prenatal care. She had a prior vertical classical cesarean delivery. What is the delivery plan?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

17

What is the first-line treatment for asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

18

A 19-year-old woman has mucopurulent cervical discharge and cervical motion tenderness. Best next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

19

What is the most common cause of postpartum fever on day 2 after cesarean delivery?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

20

A 36-year-old woman with irregular periods and signs of virilization has high testosterone, normal DHEA-S. What is the likely source?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

21

A 29-year-old pregnant woman undergoes routine screening at 26 weeks with a 50-gram 1-hour glucose challenge test. Her serum glucose is 162 mg/dL. What is the next best step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

22

Which of the following criteria confirms the diagnosis of gestational diabetes on a 3-hour 100g OGTT?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

23

A woman diagnosed with GDM is advised dietary management and exercise. What is the best parameter to assess glucose control in pregnancy?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

24

Despite diet and exercise, a woman with GDM has persistently elevated glucose levels. What is the best next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

25

Which fetal complication is most directly caused by maternal hyperglycemia during labor?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

26

A fetus with macrosomia, polyhydramnios, and thickened subcutaneous tissues is noted on ultrasound. What is the likely maternal condition?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

27

When is induction of labor indicated in a woman with insulin-controlled GDM and good fetal status?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

28

A newborn born to a diabetic mother is jittery and lethargic. Which metabolic abnormality is most likely?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

29

A woman with history of GDM in her last pregnancy asks about her future risk. Which of the following is most accurate?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

30

Which of the following statements is true regarding gestational diabetes?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

31

Which of the following defines chronic hypertension in pregnancy?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

32

A 31-year-old woman at 34 weeks has BP 142/92 mmHg and no proteinuria. Diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

33

What is the definitive management of preeclampsia?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

34

A 36-week pregnant woman has BP 170/110, RUQ pain, headache, and 3+ proteinuria. Best management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

35

Which medication is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia with severe features?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

36

What finding suggests magnesium sulfate toxicity?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

37

Which of the following is a component of HELLP syndrome?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

38

A woman at 39 weeks develops new seizures with elevated BP and proteinuria. Best initial management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

39

What is the BP goal when treating preeclampsia with severe features?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

40

A 33-year-old at 28 weeks has preeclampsia with severe features. What next?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

41

A pregnant woman eats undercooked lamb and presents with a flu-like illness. Ultrasound shows hydrocephalus and intracranial calcifications in the fetus. What is the likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

42

What is the best prevention strategy against toxoplasmosis in pregnancy?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

43

Which fetal finding is most characteristic of congenital rubella syndrome?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

44

A woman is found to be nonimmune to rubella during pregnancy. What is the appropriate management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

45

A neonate has periventricular calcifications, petechiae, and hearing loss. Which congenital infection is likely?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

46

What is the best way to confirm congenital CMV infection in the fetus?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

47

A pregnant woman has primary genital herpes at 38 weeks. What is the best delivery plan?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

48

What is the best treatment for congenital syphilis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

49

A neonate has snuffles, frontal bossing, and Hutchinson teeth. Which infection is this?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

50

What screening test is used to diagnose syphilis during prenatal visits?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

51

What is the definition of preterm labor?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

52

Which is the greatest risk factor for preterm labor?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

53

What is the first step in evaluating suspected preterm labor?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

54

Which tocolytic is contraindicated in diabetics due to risk of hyperglycemia?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

55

What is the mechanism of action of magnesium sulfate in preterm labor?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

56

Which corticosteroid is preferred to enhance fetal lung maturity in threatened preterm labor?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

57

When is tocolysis contraindicated?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

58

A 30-week pregnant woman with PPROM has no signs of infection. What is the best management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

59

What antibiotics are given for latency in PPROM?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

60

A 29-week pregnant woman has regular contractions and a cervix 2 cm dilated. What interventions are indicated?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

61

What is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

62

A woman presents postpartum with continuous bleeding. The uterus is firm and contracted. What is the likely cause?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

63

Which is the definitive treatment for retained products of conception causing postpartum bleeding?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

64

A woman presents 5 days postpartum with fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia. Diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

65

What is the best empiric treatment for postpartum endometritis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

66

A breastfeeding mother develops fever, localized breast tenderness, and erythema. What is the next best step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

67

Which finding indicates a breast abscess in a postpartum patient with mastitis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

68

A postpartum woman has difficulty lactating and cold intolerance. She had severe PPH. Most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

69

A woman postpartum has tachycardia, fever, and abdominal pain despite antibiotics. CT shows pelvic vein thrombosis. Diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

70

What is a common sign of delayed postpartum hemorrhage?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

71

A 6-week postpartum woman who is breastfeeding wants contraception. Which is the best first-line option?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

72

What is a key disadvantage of progestin-only pills in postpartum contraception?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

73

When can a copper IUD be safely inserted postpartum?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

74

A woman wants emergency contraception while breastfeeding. Best option?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

75

Which contraceptive method can reduce bone mineral density with prolonged use?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

76

Which of the following is a contraindication to estrogen-containing contraception?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

77

A woman uses lactational amenorrhea as contraception. What is true about its efficacy?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

78

When can combined OCPs be safely resumed postpartum in nonbreastfeeding women?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

79

Which postpartum contraception has the longest duration of action?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

80

Which method of contraception provides added protection against gynecologic cancers?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

81

What is the first step in evaluating amenorrhea?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

82

A 16-year-old girl has primary amenorrhea and no uterus on imaging. Karyotype is 46,XX and testosterone is normal. Diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

83

What lab pattern indicates primary ovarian insufficiency?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

84

A 17-year-old has no menses and scant pubic hair. She has breasts and a 46,XY karyotype. Diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

85

What is the definition of secondary amenorrhea?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

86

Which condition is most associated with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

87

What is the next step in evaluating secondary amenorrhea after negative pregnancy test?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

88

Which hormone abnormality most commonly causes galactorrhea with amenorrhea?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

89

A woman with history of D&C has amenorrhea and a normal FSH. Suspected diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

90

What is the initial management for acute heavy uterine bleeding in an adolescent?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

91

A woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and infertility. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

92

What is the first-line treatment for symptomatic endometriosis in a patient not seeking fertility?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

93

Which ultrasound finding supports the diagnosis of adenomyosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

94

What is the gold standard for diagnosing endometriosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

95

A woman with irregular menses, hirsutism, and obesity likely has which lab pattern?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

96

What are first-line treatments for hirsutism in PCOS?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

97

A woman with PCOS wants to conceive. Best first-line ovulation agent?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

98

What is the classic uterine exam finding in fibroids?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

99

What is the best imaging modality to confirm uterine fibroids?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

100

Which medication is used preoperatively to reduce fibroid size?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

101

A couple has tried to conceive for 1 year without success. What is the first test in the infertility workup?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

102

A woman with infertility has regular cycles. What is the best way to confirm ovulation?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

103

A 37-year-old woman has infertility and a history of PID. Best next test?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

104

A woman with irregular menses and infertility is diagnosed with PCOS. What’s the first-line treatment for ovulation induction?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

105

A 52-year-old woman has hot flashes, sleep disturbance, and no periods for 13 months. Most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

106

What lab finding supports the diagnosis of menopause?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

107

A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman has vaginal bleeding. Next best step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

108

A woman with vasomotor menopause symptoms has no contraindications. Best initial therapy?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

109

Which factor increases risk for endometrial carcinoma?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

110

A 65-year-old presents with bloating, early satiety, and ascites. Most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

111

At what age should cervical cancer screening begin?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

112

What is the recommended screening interval for a 35-year-old woman with prior normal Pap smears?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

113

Which HPV types are most associated with cervical cancer?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

114

A 26-year-old has ASC-US on Pap and is HPV positive. What is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

115

A postmenopausal woman has chronic vulvar itching and a white plaque. What is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

116

What is the hallmark symptom of vulvar cancer?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

117

What is the most common cause of bacterial vaginosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

118

What microscopy finding confirms trichomoniasis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

119

A woman has thick, white, curdy vaginal discharge with intense itching. Diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

120

What is the best treatment for symptomatic bacterial vaginosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

121

A 34-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks presents with BP 170/110 mmHg, headache, and RUQ pain. She has 3+ proteinuria. After controlling her BP with labetalol, what is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

122

A 30-year-old with insulin-controlled gestational diabetes is at 39 weeks. Fetal NSTs are reactive and the fetus is estimated at 3500g. Best next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

123

A 31-year-old G1P0 at 32 weeks has IUGR with an estimated fetal weight <10th percentile. Umbilical artery Doppler shows absent end-diastolic flow. What is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

124

A 28-year-old G2P1 is 34 weeks pregnant. Nonstress test (NST) shows no accelerations over 40 minutes. What is the best next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

125

A 33-year-old G1P0 at 36 weeks has an AFI of 3 cm on ultrasound. Fetal movements are decreased. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

126

A G1 woman at 31 weeks has cholestasis of pregnancy. She reports intense nocturnal itching on palms and soles. Bile acids are elevated. What is the best management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

127

A 35-year-old woman with pregestational DM is 38 weeks pregnant. Fetus estimated at 4700g. What is the best mode of delivery?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

128

A woman with history of prior cesarean has a current pregnancy at 40 weeks. Fetus in cephalic position. She desires vaginal birth. What is the best next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

129

A 27-year-old G2P1 at 41 weeks is evaluated. NST is reactive, cervix is 2 cm dilated, Bishop score is 5. What’s the best next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

130

A 40-year-old G1 woman is found to have a biophysical profile (BPP) score of 4 at 37 weeks. What is the most appropriate action?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

131

A 28-year-old primigravida in active labor delivers the fetal head, but it retracts against the perineum (“turtle sign”). What is the best next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

132

During delivery, a macrosomic infant is stuck with no progress despite McRoberts maneuver. What maneuver involves rotating the shoulders?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

133

A 32-year-old G3P2 has severe vaginal bleeding 10 minutes post-placenta delivery. Uterus is boggy and enlarged. What is the initial management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

134

Despite uterine massage and oxytocin, bleeding continues. BP drops to 80/50. What’s next?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

135

A woman delivers a healthy newborn but continues to bleed. Uterus is firm. No placental fragments. What is the most likely cause?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

136

A 25-year-old G2P1 presents for prenatal care. When should GBS screening be done?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

137

A 39-week G1P0 patient with unknown GBS status arrives in labor with ROM >18 hrs. What is the best step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

138

A neonate has a heart rate of 80 bpm, poor tone, and blue extremities. What is the first step in resuscitation?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

139

A full-term neonate has an APGAR of 3 at 1 min. After PPV, HR is 50. Next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

140

A 30-year-old G2P1 delivers a neonate. APGAR is 6 at 1 min and 8 at 5 min. What is the interpretation?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

141

A 36-year-old G3P2 at 38 weeks presents with painful vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and a firm abdomen. Fetal heart rate is bradycardic. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

142

A laboring woman with a prior vertical C-section develops sudden abdominal pain, loss of fetal station, and fetal bradycardia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

143

A 29-year-old in active labor suddenly collapses with dyspnea, hypotension, and DIC. Fetal heart rate shows bradycardia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

144

A 34-year-old 2 weeks postpartum presents with dyspnea, orthopnea, and bilateral rales. Echo shows EF 35%. Diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

145

A 35-year-old at 32 weeks presents with painless vaginal bleeding. She is stable. What is the next best step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

146

A 29-year-old presents 2 weeks postpartum with inability to breastfeed, fatigue, and amenorrhea. What is the likely cause?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

147

A 32-year-old woman has persistent fever, uterine tenderness, and foul lochia 3 days postpartum. Diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

148

A 26-year-old presents 3 days postpartum with fever and persistent tachycardia despite antibiotics. CT pelvis is normal. What is the diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

149

A 24-year-old G1P1 says she cries daily, has no energy, and doesn’t enjoy motherhood. She denies SI or psychosis. What’s the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

150

A woman reports seeing demons and hears voices telling her to harm her baby 10 days postpartum. Diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

151

A 29-year-old woman has not voided 8 hours after a spontaneous vaginal delivery with epidural anesthesia. She reports lower abdominal discomfort. What is the next best step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

152

A postpartum woman complains of pubic pain and difficulty walking. It began after a forceps delivery. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

153

A woman fails to deliver her placenta 35 minutes after delivery. Gentle traction on the cord fails. What is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

154

A patient with postpartum hemorrhage after forceps delivery is found to have a firm uterus but continued bleeding. What is the likely cause?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

155

A 36-year-old woman is scheduled for repeat C-section. She asks about risks. What is a specific long-term risk with multiple cesarean deliveries?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

156

A 34-year-old wants vaginal birth after prior cesarean. What is the key eligibility criterion for trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC)?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

157

A woman has a third-degree perineal tear involving the anal sphincter. What is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

158

A woman delivers via vacuum and later has perineal pain and bulging. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

159

A patient delivered 4 hours ago. She saturates 2 pads per hour and feels dizzy. Her uterus is firm. What is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

160

A patient has persistent fever 5 days postpartum despite broad antibiotics. What is the likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

161

A 29-year-old postpartum woman presents with high-grade fever, chills, and a painful, red, swollen right breast. She is breastfeeding her 2-week-old infant. Physical exam reveals fluctuance over the upper outer quadrant. What is the next best step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

162

A 35-year-old woman 4 days postpartum complains of fever, chills, foul-smelling lochia, and lower abdominal pain. She had an emergent C-section after prolonged rupture of membranes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

163

A 27-year-old breastfeeding mother complains of fatigue, failure to lactate, and cold intolerance one month postpartum. She lost a significant amount of blood during delivery. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

164

A 25-year-old breastfeeding woman presents with fever, right breast pain, and redness. She has no fluctuance. What is the first-line treatment?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

165

A 32-year-old G2P2 is being counseled on contraception. She is 3 weeks postpartum and exclusively breastfeeding. What is the best contraceptive method for her at this time?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

166

A 26-year-old G1P1 is 2 hours postpartum. On exam, her uterus is not palpable, and a red mass is seen protruding from her vagina. She is hypotensive. What is the diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

167

A 24-year-old postpartum woman reports sadness, irritability, and crying spells starting 3 days after delivery. She sleeps poorly but is still able to care for her baby. What is the likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

168

A 30-year-old woman, 2 weeks postpartum, reports severe sadness, insomnia, and passive thoughts of self-harm. She struggles to bond with her baby. What is the most appropriate next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

169

A 31-year-old postpartum woman reports hearing voices telling her to harm her baby. She believes the nurses are plotting against her. What is the most urgent management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

170

A 28-year-old postpartum woman with history of bipolar disorder is started on lithium. She wants to breastfeed. What is the correct advice?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

171

A 26-year-old G2P2 presents on postpartum day 2 with engorged breasts and asks how lactation is hormonally controlled. What stimulates the milk let-down reflex?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

172

A 30-year-old breastfeeding woman is prescribed chloramphenicol for typhoid fever. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

173

A neonate develops jaundice during the second week of life. He is exclusively breastfed and otherwise healthy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

174

A 32-year-old woman with epilepsy is taking valproic acid. She asks if she can breastfeed her newborn. What do you advise?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

175

A 24-year-old woman 4 weeks postpartum has persistent galactorrhea and amenorrhea. Pregnancy test is negative. What test is most appropriate next?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

176

A mother with active, untreated tuberculosis delivers a term infant. What should be done about breastfeeding?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

177

A 28-year-old woman with ongoing cocaine use wants to breastfeed. What is the correct recommendation?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

178

A 27-year-old G1P1 is 4 days postpartum and presents with painful, tense, shiny breasts and difficulty breastfeeding. She is afebrile. What is the diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

179

A lactating woman presents with a soft, mobile, subareolar mass and no systemic symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

180

A 5-day-old breastfed infant presents with jaundice and 12% weight loss. He feeds infrequently and sleeps excessively. What is the likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

181

A postpartum woman develops a 2 cm tender area in her right breast. There is no fluctuance or fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

182

A mother asks about health benefits of breastfeeding for her infant. What is a proven benefit?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

183

A 28-year-old woman asks about how breastfeeding benefits her own health. Which is a confirmed benefit for the mother?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

184

A woman who chooses not to breastfeed asks how to suppress lactation safely. What advice should you give?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

185

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to breastfeeding?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

186

A 31-year-old breastfeeding woman says her baby seems unsatisfied after feeds and her breasts feel less full. What is the first step in managing perceived low milk supply?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

187

A newborn with vomiting, hypoglycemia, and jaundice is diagnosed with galactosemia. What is the correct feeding plan?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

188

A 36-year-old mother with active breast lesions on her right nipple caused by HSV wants to breastfeed. What should you advise?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

189

A woman on chemotherapy for lymphoma asks whether she can breastfeed her 6-week-old infant. What is the best response?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

190

A woman with active varicella infection postpartum wants to breastfeed. What is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

191

A mother reports extreme breast pain during feeds and observes blanching of the nipple. What is the likely cause?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

192

A woman with chronic hepatitis B delivers a healthy baby. She asks if she can breastfeed. What is the correct advice?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

193

A new mother on high-dose tetracycline asks about breastfeeding safety. What do you tell her?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

194

A postpartum woman develops a fever and tender, red area on the breast. No fluctuance is noted. She is 3 weeks postpartum and breastfeeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

195

Which hormone is responsible for inhibiting ovulation during breastfeeding?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

196

A 30-year-old breastfeeding woman is requesting contraception. Which method is safest in the early postpartum period?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

197

A 24-year-old woman asks when her fertility will return if she is exclusively breastfeeding. What is the correct answer?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

198

A 32-year-old woman delivered 3 days ago. She wants long-acting contraception. What is the earliest she can receive a copper IUD?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

199

A 27-year-old postpartum woman is started on combined OCPs 2 weeks after delivery. What is the primary risk?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

200

A 33-year-old woman delivered via C-section 6 days ago. She asks about contraceptive options that are permanent and safe while breastfeeding. What do you recommend?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

201

Which of the following must be true for lactational amenorrhea to be considered an effective form of contraception?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

202

A woman using the lactational amenorrhea method reports return of vaginal bleeding at 10 weeks. What is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

203

A breastfeeding woman is started on the medroxyprogesterone depot shot. What side effect should she be counseled about?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

204

Which emergency contraception is safe during breastfeeding?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

205

A woman asks about implantable long-term contraception while breastfeeding. What’s the best option?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

206

A 30-year-old G2P2 woman is interested in long-term contraception and is exclusively breastfeeding. Which of the following methods is most effective and safe in this context?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

207

A 24-year-old woman delivers vaginally and requests postpartum IUD insertion. When is the safest time to place it?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

208

A breastfeeding woman with hypertension needs contraception. Which is safest and effective?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

209

A 29-year-old woman wants contraception after first-trimester abortion. When can she start?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

210

A woman with irregular periods and BMI >35 is considering fertility awareness method. What’s the main drawback in her case?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

211

A woman 10 days postpartum wants to start combined OCPs. She’s breastfeeding and has no VTE risk factors. What is the appropriate advice?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

212

A 25-year-old postpartum woman prefers non-hormonal birth control. What is the most effective option?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

213

What is the most common side effect of the levonorgestrel-releasing IUD in the first 6 months?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

214

A 31-year-old woman had a suction curettage for miscarriage. She wants contraception now. What’s safe and effective?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

215

A postpartum patient requests tubal ligation. What’s a risk of this procedure?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

216

A 33-year-old woman with history of DVT during pregnancy is 4 weeks postpartum and wants to start contraception. Which method is safest?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

217

A 22-year-old woman with chronic liver disease needs contraception. Which method is contraindicated?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

218

A patient with migraine with aura wants to start birth control pills. What is the best advice?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

219

A 28-year-old woman starts depot medroxyprogesterone (DMPA). What side effect should she be warned about?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

220

A 17-year-old girl is sexually active. What is the most effective contraceptive option for her?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

221

A 29-year-old woman postpartum wants contraception but refuses hormonal options. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the copper IUD?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

222

Which of the following is a relative contraindication for levonorgestrel IUD use?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

223

A 35-year-old smoker wants contraception. What method is contraindicated?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

224

What is a major benefit of the progestin IUD compared to copper IUD?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

225

Which contraceptive method is most associated with weight gain and delayed return to fertility?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

226

A 17-year-old girl presents with heavy, irregular menstrual cycles. She is not sexually active. What is the best first-line treatment for cycle regulation?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

227

A 28-year-old woman receives depot medroxyprogesterone (DMPA) injections for contraception. She now complains of weight gain and amenorrhea. What should she be counseled about?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

228

A 19-year-old G1P1 comes for postpartum follow-up. She wants reliable, discreet contraception that lasts several years. She is breastfeeding. What is best?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

229

A 22-year-old postpartum woman receives a levonorgestrel IUD before discharge. Three weeks later, she reports cramping and notes the IUD string is not felt. What is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

230

A 34-year-old woman with a history of gestational hypertension asks about contraceptive safety. Which is the best long-term method for her?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

231

A 15-year-old girl wants birth control that she doesn’t have to remember daily. What is the best option?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

232

A woman with menorrhagia and anemia wants long-term contraception. Which option is best suited to reduce her bleeding?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

233

A 17-year-old with irregular menses and PCOS wants contraception. What’s best for cycle regulation and acne?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

234

A 28-year-old wants a permanent method of contraception after second C-section. What should she be counseled about?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

235

A breastfeeding woman experiences breast tenderness and acne after starting levonorgestrel IUD. What is the likely cause?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

236

A 19-year-old patient chooses to delay starting a family but wants reversible, low-maintenance birth control. What’s the best choice?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

237

A woman with controlled gestational diabetes wants contraception. What option is safest postpartum while breastfeeding?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

238

A postpartum woman on warfarin needs contraception. Which is safest?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

239

A 15-year-old patient is fearful of weight gain with contraception. Which method is least likely to cause weight gain?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

240

A woman using combined OCPs complains of new onset migraine with aura. What should be done?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

241

A 22-year-old woman with sickle cell disease presents for contraceptive counseling. She is concerned about avoiding pregnancy due to her disease risks. What is the best option?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

242

A 25-year-old woman with epilepsy stabilized on carbamazepine is seeking contraception. What is the best recommendation?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

243

A 30-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) tests positive for antiphospholipid antibodies. She requests birth control. What is contraindicated?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

244

A 19-year-old female asks about the use of condoms as her primary contraception. Which counseling point is most accurate?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

245

A 15-year-old presents to the clinic 60 hours after unprotected intercourse. She does not want her parents to know. What is the best option for emergency contraception?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

246

A 17-year-old with heavy menstrual bleeding and low hemoglobin wants contraception. What is the most therapeutic option?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

247

A woman with known sickle cell trait asks if she can use estrogen-containing pills. What is the correct recommendation?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

248

A patient with seizure disorder controlled on lamotrigine is started on combined oral contraceptives. One month later, she reports breakthrough seizures. What is the explanation?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

249

A 29-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus, negative for antiphospholipid antibodies, requests birth control. Which is the safest option?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

250

A 15-year-old girl comes in with her mother to discuss birth control. She is embarrassed and says little. What is the most appropriate approach?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

251

A 49-year-old woman presents with new-onset intermenstrual bleeding and pelvic pressure. She has no significant medical history. Ultrasound shows a 4 cm submucosal fibroid. What is the most appropriate next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

252

A 28-year-old woman with obesity, acne, and hirsutism is diagnosed with PCOS. She is not planning pregnancy. What is the best long-term treatment to regulate her cycles?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

253

A 36-year-old woman with infertility and hirsutism is diagnosed with PCOS. Which medication improves ovulation and insulin sensitivity?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

254

A 33-year-old woman with 12 months of infertility has regular cycles. HSG shows bilateral tubal patency. Partner's semen analysis is normal. What is the next best step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

255

A 43-year-old woman has prolonged bleeding for 12 days every cycle. She wants conservative management. What is a good first-line option?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

256

A 34-year-old woman reports irregular bleeding and mid-cycle spotting. She had a D&C for miscarriage 6 months ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

257

A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman has a transvaginal ultrasound showing endometrial thickness of 6 mm. She reports no bleeding. What is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

258

A 35-year-old nulliparous woman with heavy bleeding is found to have a 3 cm endometrial polyp. What is the best treatment?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

259

A 39-year-old woman is diagnosed with endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. She wants to avoid surgery. What is the best treatment?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

260

A 44-year-old woman reports cyclic pelvic pain and heavy periods. Imaging shows a uniformly enlarged, globular uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

261

A 29-year-old woman presents with severe dysmenorrhea and infertility. Pelvic exam reveals a retroverted uterus with nodularity in the posterior cul-de-sac. What is the best initial step in management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

262

A 32-year-old woman presents with severe menstrual cramps and heavy bleeding. On pelvic exam, the uterus is uniformly enlarged and tender. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

263

A 16-year-old girl has crampy lower abdominal pain during menstruation. Pain is relieved by NSAIDs. No abnormalities on pelvic exam. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

264

A 48-year-old woman reports night sweats, hot flashes, and amenorrhea for 14 months. What lab abnormality supports the diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

265

A 53-year-old woman complains of vaginal dryness, painful intercourse, and urinary urgency. She has no contraindications to hormone therapy. What is the best initial treatment?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

266

A 58-year-old woman on hormone replacement therapy for hot flashes presents with calf swelling and pain. Doppler confirms DVT. What is the next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

267

A 45-year-old woman presents with 9 months of chronic pelvic pain. Pelvic exam is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

268

A woman with a history of hysterectomy for fibroids develops sudden onset of severe pelvic pain. Pelvic US shows a 6 cm adnexal mass with no Doppler flow. What is the diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

269

A 54-year-old woman reports painful intercourse, insomnia, and irritability. She had menopause 2 years ago and prefers non-hormonal options. What is an appropriate treatment?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

270

A 30-year-old woman with infertility is diagnosed with mild endometriosis on laparoscopy. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

271

A 28-year-old woman presents with thin, white vaginal discharge and a "fishy" odor. She denies pruritus. Microscopy shows clue cells. What is the diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

272

A 21-year-old female has a Pap smear showing ASC-US. She is HPV positive. What is the next best step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

273

A 31-year-old patient asks about the HPV vaccine. She is sexually active and previously not vaccinated. What should you recommend?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

274

A 64-year-old postmenopausal woman reports a vaginal bulge and incomplete voiding. Exam reveals anterior vaginal wall prolapse. What is the likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

275

A 68-year-old woman with multiple vaginal deliveries reports feeling a bulge while walking. She does not want surgery. What is a suitable treatment?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

276

A 52-year-old woman experiences involuntary urine loss when coughing or sneezing. What type of incontinence is this?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

277

A woman with urge incontinence is treated with oxybutynin. What is its mechanism?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

278

A woman with constant, painless leakage of urine had a prolonged obstructed labor. What is the most likely cause?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

279

A 24-year-old woman presents with green, frothy discharge, pruritus, and strawberry cervix. What is the treatment?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

280

A 32-year-old complains of intense vulvar itching and pain. On exam, there’s a white plaque-like lesion on the vulva. Biopsy shows thinning of the epidermis. What’s the diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

281

A 54-year-old woman with a BMI of 38 presents with postmenopausal bleeding. TVUS shows an endometrial stripe of 7 mm. What is the next best step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

282

A 65-year-old woman with a history of tamoxifen use presents with vaginal bleeding. What malignancy is most associated with tamoxifen use?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

283

A 58-year-old woman with abdominal bloating and early satiety is found to have ascites and an adnexal mass. What tumor marker supports the diagnosis of epithelial ovarian cancer?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

284

A 35-year-old BRCA1 mutation carrier asks about ovarian cancer risk reduction. What is the best preventive measure?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

285

A 46-year-old woman presents with persistent pruritus and white plaques on her vulva. Biopsy reveals VIN III. What is the next step in management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

286

A 64-year-old presents with vulvar pain and ulceration. Biopsy confirms squamous cell carcinoma. What is the standard treatment?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

287

A 34-year-old with abnormal Pap and biopsy-confirmed CIN III desires fertility. What is the best treatment?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

288

A 43-year-old presents with foul-smelling vaginal discharge and cervical ulceration. Biopsy reveals invasive cervical cancer. What stage involves spread to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 of vagina?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

289

A 56-year-old presents with watery vaginal discharge and a vaginal lesion. Biopsy confirms squamous cell vaginal cancer. What is the most common site?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

290

A 60-year-old postmenopausal woman has a new 10 cm solid adnexal mass and CA-125 of 92. What is the most appropriate next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

291

A 65-year-old woman presents with abdominal bloating and early satiety. Ultrasound shows a solid, fixed adnexal mass with ascites. What features are most concerning for malignancy?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

292

A 19-year-old woman presents with an abdominal mass and elevated AFP. Which ovarian tumor is most likely?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

293

A 17-year-old girl presents with a pelvic mass and elevated β-hCG. No pregnancy is found on ultrasound. Which tumor is most likely?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

294

A 52-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding and an adnexal mass. Estrogen is elevated. What ovarian tumor is likely?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

295

A 20-year-old woman has a 6 cm adnexal mass. Ultrasound shows a mixed solid-cystic lesion with calcifications and fat-fluid levels. What is the diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

296

A 68-year-old woman presents with ascites, weight loss, and a fixed pelvic mass. What is the first step in management?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

297

A woman with ovarian cancer is staged surgically. Which component is essential to accurate staging?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

298

A 58-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer has undergone optimal debulking surgery. What is the standard next step?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

299

A 67-year-old presents with elevated CA-125 and bilateral complex adnexal masses. CT shows omental caking. What is the likely stage?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

300

A 29-year-old woman with irregular cycles and a large ovarian mass is found to have elevated testosterone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Obstetrics & Gynecology

QBank

1

A 72-year-old man presents with painless, progressive loss of vision, particularly at night. Examination shows loss of red reflex. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

2

A 56-year-old African American man with diabetes has gradual loss of peripheral vision in both eyes. Fundoscopy shows optic disc cupping. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

3

A 48-year-old woman presents to the ED with sudden eye pain, headache, and nausea after watching a movie in a dark room. Her eye is red and hard. What is the best next step?

Ophthalmology

QBank

4

A 66-year-old man complains of straight lines appearing wavy and central vision loss. Fundoscopy reveals drusen deposits. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

5

A 22-year-old contact lens wearer presents with severe eye pain, redness, and a white corneal opacity. What is the likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

6

A 65-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents with gradual bilateral vision loss. Fundoscopy shows microaneurysms, dot-blot hemorrhages, and hard exudates. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

7

A 58-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presents with sudden vision loss. Fundoscopy shows neovascularization of the retina and vitreous hemorrhage. What is the best initial treatment?

Ophthalmology

QBank

8

A diabetic patient presents with vision loss. Fluorescein angiography reveals macular leakage. What is the likely cause of vision loss?

Ophthalmology

QBank

9

What is the earliest detectable sign of diabetic retinopathy on fundoscopy?

Ophthalmology

QBank

10

A patient with type 1 diabetes undergoes fundus screening. Retinal exam shows new vessels near the optic disc. What does this signify?

Ophthalmology

QBank

11

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for progression of diabetic retinopathy?

Ophthalmology

QBank

12

A diabetic patient presents with floaters and loss of red reflex. Fundoscopy is difficult due to hazy media. What is the next best step?

Ophthalmology

QBank

13

When should diabetic retinopathy screening begin in patients with type 1 diabetes?

Ophthalmology

QBank

14

A diabetic patient with worsening vision has a normal intraocular pressure and no lens opacity. OCT shows retinal thickening at the macula. What is the diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

15

A patient with long-standing diabetes presents with progressive vision loss. Which imaging study is most useful in guiding treatment of macular edema?

Ophthalmology

QBank

16

A 27-year-old contact lens user presents with pain, photophobia, tearing, and a central corneal ulcer. Slit-lamp exam shows stromal infiltrates. What is the likely causative organism?

Ophthalmology

QBank

17

A 30-year-old woman presents with painful red eye and photophobia. Slit-lamp exam reveals a branching dendritic ulcer on fluorescein stain. What is the treatment?

Ophthalmology

QBank

18

A 70-year-old man presents with unilateral eye pain, vesicles on the eyelid, and dendritic ulcers on cornea. What is the likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

19

A 5-year-old boy has redness, itching, and watery discharge in both eyes. Examination shows conjunctival papillae and no lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

20

A 22-year-old woman develops unilateral red eye with mucopurulent discharge and crusting of eyelashes. What is the next best step?

Ophthalmology

QBank

21

A child presents with bilateral conjunctivitis and preauricular lymphadenopathy. Discharge is watery. What is the diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

22

A 60-year-old man was hit in the eye with a tennis ball. He has blurred vision, shallow anterior chamber, and peaked pupil. What is the most concerning complication?

Ophthalmology

QBank

23

A child presents with white pupillary reflex (leukocoria) on photos. What is the most urgent differential diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

24

A 70-year-old man has transient monocular vision loss like a “curtain coming down.” What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

25

A 64-year-old man with temporal headache and jaw claudication has sudden vision loss. ESR is 100 mm/hr. What is the next step?

Ophthalmology

QBank

26

A 65-year-old woman reports seeing flashing lights followed by sudden onset of multiple floaters and a shadow descending over her right visual field. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

27

A 30-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis develops sudden vision loss and eye pain on movement. Pupillary light reaction is sluggish. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

28

A patient has complete ptosis, eye is "down and out," and the pupil is dilated. What nerve is involved?

Ophthalmology

QBank

29

A diabetic patient presents with horizontal diplopia and inability to abduct the right eye. Which nerve is likely affected?

Ophthalmology

QBank

30

A 45-year-old woman reports difficulty walking down stairs and vertical diplopia. Exam reveals head tilt and impaired depression in adduction. Which nerve is involved?

Ophthalmology

QBank

31

A 70-year-old man complains of loss of peripheral vision. Confrontation testing shows bitemporal hemianopia. What is the most likely cause?

Ophthalmology

QBank

32

A 60-year-old woman with hypertension has sudden, painless vision loss in one eye. Fundoscopy shows pale retina with cherry-red macula. What is the likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

33

A 65-year-old diabetic patient develops a painful third nerve palsy sparing the pupil. What is the most likely cause?

Ophthalmology

QBank

34

A patient complains of loss of the right visual field in both eyes. Which of the following best describes the defect?

Ophthalmology

QBank

35

A 40-year-old woman has bilateral optic disc swelling with preserved vision. She is obese with headache and blurred vision. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

36

Which visual field defect results from a lesion of the left optic nerve?

Ophthalmology

QBank

37

A 68-year-old man complains of episodes of seeing flashing lights and floaters. He now sees a curtain coming down over his vision. What is the best next step?

Ophthalmology

QBank

38

A patient with sudden painless monocular vision loss has a “blood and thunder” appearance on fundoscopy. What is the diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

39

Which of the following is the most likely visual defect in a patient with a lesion in the left Meyer's loop?

Ophthalmology

QBank

40

A 50-year-old male presents with gradual vision loss and color desaturation. Fundoscopy reveals temporal optic disc pallor. What is the likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

41

A 32-year-old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with painful red eye, photophobia, and blurred vision. On exam, her pupil is small and irregular. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

42

Which finding on slit-lamp exam is characteristic of anterior uveitis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

43

A 45-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis presents with severe, boring eye pain that wakes her at night. Her sclera appears violaceous. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

44

A 27-year-old woman with red eye is diagnosed with episcleritis. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Ophthalmology

QBank

45

A construction worker presents with eye pain after grinding metal without protection. Slit-lamp reveals a rust ring on the cornea. What is the next step?

Ophthalmology

QBank

46

A 6-year-old boy presents with trauma to the eye from a pencil. On slit-lamp, a positive Seidel test is noted. What does this indicate?

Ophthalmology

QBank

47

A patient with diabetes presents with floaters and black spots in vision. Fundus is obscured. What is the most appropriate initial test?

Ophthalmology

QBank

48

A farmer presents with red eye, pain, and blurred vision after trauma from a tree branch. Slit-lamp reveals feathery-edged corneal ulcer. What is the likely organism?

Ophthalmology

QBank

49

A patient complains of distorted vision where straight lines appear wavy. What is this phenomenon called?

Ophthalmology

QBank

50

Which systemic disease is most commonly associated with anterior uveitis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

51

A 35-year-old man with recent travel history develops eye pain, redness, and photophobia. He uses home-made eye drops. Corneal scraping reveals Acanthamoeba. What is the best initial therapy?

Ophthalmology

QBank

52

A 9-year-old girl has bilateral eyelid itching and white debris stuck to the eyelashes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

53

A 62-year-old diabetic presents with red, swollen eyelid, proptosis, fever, and restricted eye movement. What is the next best step?

Ophthalmology

QBank

54

A 32-year-old woman complains of chronic eyelid irritation and flaking. On exam, there is redness of the lid margin and scaling at the base of the eyelashes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

55

What is the best initial management for blepharitis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

56

A 22-year-old student presents with a painful red bump on the eyelid margin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

57

A 40-year-old man has a firm, painless lump away from the eyelid margin. There is no redness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

58

What is the treatment for a chalazion that persists after 4 weeks of conservative therapy?

Ophthalmology

QBank

59

A 28-year-old man complains of a red, painful eye after removing a contact lens. Slit-lamp with fluorescein shows a linear area of uptake. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

60

What is the best initial treatment for a corneal abrasion in a non-contact lens wearer?

Ophthalmology

QBank

61

A 24-year-old swimmer presents with eye pain and photophobia. Fluorescein stain shows diffuse epithelial damage. What is the next best step?

Ophthalmology

QBank

62

A contact lens wearer presents with corneal abrasion. What antibiotic should be avoided?

Ophthalmology

QBank

63

What complication can result from improperly managed corneal abrasions?

Ophthalmology

QBank

64

What is the hallmark symptom of corneal abrasion?

Ophthalmology

QBank

65

What is the best diagnostic test for corneal abrasion?

Ophthalmology

QBank

66

A 3-week-old infant presents with tearing, mucoid discharge, and eyelid crusting. Gentle pressure over the lacrimal sac causes reflux of discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

67

A newborn has bilateral conjunctivitis 2 days after birth. The conjunctiva is injected with copious purulent discharge. What is the most likely organism?

Ophthalmology

QBank

68

A 2-week-old baby develops conjunctivitis with watery discharge and eyelid swelling. It began 7 days after birth. What is the most likely cause?

Ophthalmology

QBank

69

A premature infant born at 28 weeks is undergoing routine eye screening. Which condition is the ophthalmologist trying to detect?

Ophthalmology

QBank

70

A 2-month-old infant is noted to have a white reflex on photos. What is the most concerning diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

71

A 4-year-old child has inward deviation of one eye. Visual acuity is decreased in that eye. What is the diagnosis and next step?

Ophthalmology

QBank

72

What is the most common cause of reversible vision loss in children?

Ophthalmology

QBank

73

A 5-year-old child has constant eye crossing. Vision is normal when each eye is tested separately. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

74

A child is noted to have apparent inward eye deviation, but corneal light reflex is centered. What is the likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

75

What is the Hirschberg test used for?

Ophthalmology

QBank

76

A full-term infant fails red reflex screening in the right eye. What is the next best step?

Ophthalmology

QBank

77

What is the first-line treatment for amblyopia?

Ophthalmology

QBank

78

A 2-year-old has constant eye deviation. When should they be referred to ophthalmology?

Ophthalmology

QBank

79

Which of the following is a normal finding in newborn vision screening?

Ophthalmology

QBank

80

At what age is strabismus considered abnormal and warrants evaluation?

Ophthalmology

QBank

81

A 66-year-old man with diabetes complains of gradual loss of peripheral vision. Fundoscopy reveals an increased cup-to-disc ratio. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

82

Which of the following is the first-line medical treatment for open-angle glaucoma?

Ophthalmology

QBank

83

A 50-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and nausea after entering a dark movie theater. The eye is red and mid-dilated. What is the diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

84

What is the definitive treatment for recurrent acute angle-closure glaucoma?

Ophthalmology

QBank

85

What is the typical intraocular pressure (IOP) in a patient with acute angle-closure glaucoma?

Ophthalmology

QBank

86

A 45-year-old woman presents with acute angle-closure glaucoma. What medication should be avoided initially?

Ophthalmology

QBank

87

A 1-month-old infant has tearing, photophobia, and enlarged cornea with a cloudy appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

88

What class of drug increases trabecular outflow and is used in acute angle-closure glaucoma after IOP is reduced?

Ophthalmology

QBank

89

Which of the following systemic medications can precipitate angle-closure glaucoma?

Ophthalmology

QBank

90

What is the mechanism of action of acetazolamide in glaucoma management?

Ophthalmology

QBank

91

Which finding on fundoscopy best indicates advanced glaucoma?

Ophthalmology

QBank

92

What visual field defect is most commonly seen in glaucoma?

Ophthalmology

QBank

93

Which of the following agents should be used with caution in asthmatic patients with glaucoma?

Ophthalmology

QBank

94

A patient with chronic glaucoma develops brown pigmentation of the iris and longer eyelashes. Which medication is responsible?

Ophthalmology

QBank

95

Which of the following is an indication for surgical intervention in glaucoma?

Ophthalmology

QBank

96

A 74-year-old man complains of difficulty reading and recognizing faces. Fundoscopy shows yellow drusen deposits in the macula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

97

A 66-year-old woman has sudden central vision loss. Fundoscopy reveals subretinal hemorrhage and neovascular membranes. What is the best treatment?

Ophthalmology

QBank

98

A healthy 38-year-old man presents with blurred central vision in one eye after a stressful event. Fundoscopy reveals serous retinal detachment in the macula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

99

A 65-year-old man with poorly controlled hypertension presents with vision loss. Fundoscopy reveals flame hemorrhages, AV nicking, and cotton wool spots. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

100

A 59-year-old man with diabetes reports sudden vision loss. Fundus shows a swollen optic disc, venous tortuosity, and retinal hemorrhages. What is the diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

101

A 72-year-old woman presents with sudden, painless vision loss. Fundoscopy shows a cherry red spot and pale retina. What is the most likely cause?

Ophthalmology

QBank

102

Which of the following is the most common intraocular tumor in adults?

Ophthalmology

QBank

103

Which ocular tumor presents in childhood with leukocoria and can be hereditary?

Ophthalmology

QBank

104

A 50-year-old male with AIDS has vision loss and retinal hemorrhages with white exudates ("pizza pie" appearance). What is the diagnosis?

Ophthalmology

QBank

105

A 35-year-old male complains of floaters and decreased vision. He recently started HAART for HIV. Fundoscopy shows no signs of active CMV retinitis. What is the likely cause?

Ophthalmology

QBank

106

A patient with longstanding uncontrolled hypertension presents with vision loss and bilateral optic disc swelling. What is the most likely cause?

Ophthalmology

QBank

107

A 55-year-old man with chronic renal disease has blurry vision. Fundus shows cotton wool spots, hard exudates, and macular edema. What is the cause?

Ophthalmology

QBank

108

A patient on long-term hydroxychloroquine therapy for lupus is referred for eye screening. What is the concern?

Ophthalmology

QBank

109

A 47-year-old female with history of breast cancer presents with progressive bilateral visual loss. Fundus is normal. What is the likely cause?

Ophthalmology

QBank

110

A young adult complains of mild blurry vision. On exam, the lens appears dislocated superiorly. What underlying disorder should be suspected?

Ophthalmology

QBank

1

A 70-year-old woman presents with joint pain in both knees and hands. The pain worsens throughout the day and improves with rest. On examination, you notice bony enlargement of DIP and PIP joints. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

2

A 42-year-old woman presents with morning stiffness in the hands and wrists that lasts more than one hour and improves as the day progresses. Physical exam shows MCP and PIP joint swelling bilaterally. What is the best initial test?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

3

A 30-year-old woman presents with joint pain, malar rash, photosensitivity, and fatigue. Labs show positive ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies. What is the best treatment for skin and joint involvement?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

4

A 24-year-old male presents with low back pain and morning stiffness that improves with activity. X-ray shows sacroiliitis. Which of the following is most likely associated with this disease?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

5

A 17-year-old girl presents with wrist and knee pain, fever, photosensitivity, and oral ulcers. What lab finding would be most specific for her condition?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

6

A 25-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand while skateboarding. He complains of wrist pain. Tenderness is noted in the anatomic snuffbox. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

7

A 62-year-old man with history of alcohol use presents with acute severe joint pain in the first MTP. The joint is red, swollen, and extremely tender. What is the best initial treatment?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

8

A 55-year-old man with diabetes presents with monoarticular knee pain. Joint aspiration reveals positively birefringent, rhomboid-shaped crystals. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

9

A 40-year-old man fractures his midshaft humerus in a car accident. He complains of wrist drop. What nerve is likely injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

10

A 67-year-old woman presents with anterior thigh pain and difficulty rising from a seated position. She has a history of chronic steroid use. X-ray shows femoral head collapse. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

11

A 50-year-old man with a history of psoriasis presents with joint pain in DIP joints and dactylitis. What is the best initial treatment?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

12

A 6-year-old boy has a painless limp and limited hip abduction. X-ray shows flattening of the femoral head. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

13

A 13-year-old obese boy presents with knee pain and external rotation of the left leg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

14

A 19-year-old man presents with back pain and heel pain. On exam, he has Achilles tendon tenderness and limited lumbar flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

15

A 28-year-old woman presents with bilateral joint swelling, fatigue, and dry eyes and mouth. Schirmer test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

16

A 48-year-old woman presents with thickened skin on her hands and face, Raynaud phenomenon, and dysphagia. ANA and anti-centromere antibodies are positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

17

A 70-year-old woman with a history of postmenopausal status presents with a vertebral compression fracture after minimal trauma. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

18

A 40-year-old woman presents with pain and tingling in her thumb, index, and middle fingers. Symptoms worsen at night. Phalen and Tinel tests are positive. What is the next best step?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

19

A 9-year-old girl presents with daily fever spikes for 2 weeks, salmon-colored rash, and joint pain. Lab shows elevated ESR and ferritin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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20

A 36-year-old woman presents with diffuse muscle pain, fatigue, and unrefreshing sleep. Physical exam reveals tender points in multiple regions. Labs are normal. What is the most appropriate management?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

21

A 67-year-old man has worsening lower back pain radiating to his left leg. Exam reveals decreased Achilles reflex and sensory loss in the lateral foot. Which nerve root is involved?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

22

A 45-year-old man develops arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis 3 weeks after a diarrheal illness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

23

A 32-year-old man with chronic low back pain that improves with activity presents with uveitis. What should you test for next?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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24

A 56-year-old man presents with hand pain. On exam, he has nodules over the DIP joints. What are these called?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

25

A 58-year-old woman presents with progressive shoulder pain and stiffness over the past 6 months. Passive and active ROM are equally restricted. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

26

A 45-year-old carpenter presents with shoulder pain worsened by lifting his arm overhead. Neer and Hawkins tests are positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

27

A 60-year-old man presents with shoulder weakness after lifting a heavy object. He cannot abduct his arm above 90 degrees. Empty can test is positive. What muscle is injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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28

A patient presents with difficulty externally rotating the shoulder and weakness in that movement. What muscle is most likely injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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29

A 54-year-old man presents with shoulder pain and weakness. He is unable to externally rotate or abduct the arm. What combination of muscles is likely affected?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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30

A 48-year-old swimmer complains of dull shoulder pain with overhead activity. Resisted external rotation is painful. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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31

A 40-year-old male has weakness in internal rotation and pain in the anterior shoulder. Which muscle is most likely affected?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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32

What is the most specific clinical test for supraspinatus tear?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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33

A 60-year-old woman presents with chronic shoulder pain and an inability to lift her arm above her head. X-ray is unremarkable. Which imaging is best to confirm rotator cuff tear?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

34

A patient has tenderness at the greater tuberosity and pain with resisted abduction. Which tendon is most likely injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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35

A patient presents with chronic posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Which muscle is most likely involved?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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36

A 28-year-old man suffers a supracondylar humerus fracture after falling on an outstretched arm. He has loss of forearm pronation and thenar muscle wasting. What nerve is most likely injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

37

A 21-year-old male sustains a humeral shaft fracture during a car accident. He now has wrist drop and numbness over the dorsal hand. Which nerve is injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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38

A 35-year-old man presents with hand weakness. On exam, he cannot flex the 4th and 5th digits, and has wasting of the hypothenar eminence. Which nerve is involved?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

39

A patient has difficulty abducting his arm past 15 degrees and numbness over the deltoid area after an anterior shoulder dislocation. What nerve is likely injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

40

A 30-year-old man presents after being stabbed in the upper arm. He has loss of forearm flexion and loss of sensation over the lateral forearm. What nerve is affected?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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41

A 6-year-old child is pulled suddenly by the arm. He refuses to move his elbow. On exam, the arm is held in slight flexion and pronation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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42

A 7-year-old boy presents with severe elbow pain and swelling after falling on an outstretched arm. X-ray shows a supracondylar fracture. What is the most feared complication?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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43

A 32-year-old man has pain and swelling over the posterior elbow after prolonged leaning. No redness or warmth is present. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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44

A 45-year-old woman complains of thumb pain radiating to the forearm, especially when lifting objects. Finkelstein test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

45

A 29-year-old woman presents with a smooth, non-tender, soft swelling on the dorsal wrist. It transilluminates. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

46

A 63-year-old woman complains of swelling in the popliteal fossa that worsens with knee extension. It is soft, mobile, and transilluminates. What is the diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

47

A patient presents with pain and paresthesia in the lateral 3.5 fingers, worse at night. Tinel and Phalen tests are positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

48

A 35-year-old office worker has numbness in the thumb and index finger. Electrodiagnostic studies confirm slowed median nerve conduction. What is the best initial treatment?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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49

A patient with chronic rheumatoid arthritis develops a painless, fluctuant mass at the dorsum of the knee joint. What is the diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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50

A 62-year-old man has persistent numbness in the lateral palm and thumb despite conservative carpal tunnel treatment. Which surgical procedure is indicated?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

51

A 23-year-old soccer player hears a "pop" in his knee during a non-contact pivot. He is unable to continue playing and has swelling within an hour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

52

Which physical exam test is most sensitive for detecting an ACL tear?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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53

A 30-year-old skier sustains a dashboard injury in a car crash. He has posterior sagging of the tibia. Which structure is injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

54

A 25-year-old football player complains of medial knee pain after a valgus stress injury. Which ligament is most likely injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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55

What is the primary function of the ACL?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

56

A patient has delayed swelling and locking of the knee. McMurray test produces a click. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

57

What is the function of the medial meniscus?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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58

A basketball player lands from a jump and suddenly collapses with anterior knee pain. Palpation shows a gap above the patella. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

59

A 28-year-old runner has anterior knee pain worsened by climbing stairs or sitting for long periods. What is the likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

60

A 40-year-old man has pain just below the patella after repeated jumping. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

61

What is the role of the PCL in knee stability?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

62

A patient with a torn ACL wants to return to competitive sports. What is the most definitive treatment?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

63

What is the most common mechanism of injury for an MCL tear?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

64

A patient with suspected meniscus tear has joint line tenderness and pain with squatting. What test can confirm the diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

65

Which knee ligament is tested by applying a valgus force at 30° of flexion?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

66

A 74-year-old woman falls at home. Her leg is shortened and externally rotated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

67

Which artery is most at risk in a femoral neck fracture?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

68

A 35-year-old man is in a high-speed car crash. He presents with a shortened, internally rotated leg. What is the most likely injury?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

69

Which nerve is most likely injured in a posterior hip dislocation?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

70

A 28-year-old football player is struck directly on the lateral thigh. He has difficulty flexing the hip and extending the knee. What nerve is likely injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

71

A 25-year-old man undergoes surgery for a pelvic tumor. Post-op, he cannot adduct his thigh and has numbness over the medial thigh. Which nerve was likely injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

72

A 60-year-old patient with diabetes presents with burning pain and numbness over the lateral thigh. No motor weakness is noted. What is the diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

73

Which muscle group is innervated by the sciatic nerve?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

74

A hip fracture in the femoral neck most commonly affects which part of the femoral head blood supply?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

75

Which nerve is at risk during hip replacement surgery due to its proximity to the anterior capsule?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

76

What physical sign suggests hip joint pathology over lumbar radiculopathy?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

77

Which nerve innervates the gluteus medius and minimus?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

78

A patient walks with a right Trendelenburg gait. Which muscle is weak?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

79

Which hip structure is primarily responsible for hip abduction?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

80

After posterior hip dislocation, a patient has loss of dorsiflexion and eversion. Which nerve is affected?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

81

A construction worker presents with numbness in the lateral 3½ fingers and weakness in thumb opposition. Which nerve is affected?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

82

A 35-year-old woman complains of wrist pain radiating to the thumb. Finkelstein test is positive. What is the likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

83

What movement is lost in an ulnar nerve lesion at the wrist?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

84

Which deformity results from an injury to the extensor tendon at the DIP joint?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

85

A secretary presents with pain and locking of her middle finger on flexion. The finger clicks on extension. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

86

What is the most common presentation of radial nerve palsy?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

87

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with a fluctuant swelling in the popliteal fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

88

A carpet layer presents with anterior knee swelling and pain. No fever is present. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

89

What is the best physical test to assess for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

90

A patient with mallet finger should be managed with which initial approach?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

91

Injury to which nerve causes weakness in shoulder abduction beyond 15° and numbness over the deltoid?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

92

A patient with carpal tunnel syndrome may have wasting of which muscle group?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

93

Which finger flexor pulley is most commonly involved in trigger finger?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

94

What is the main movement lost in an anterior interosseous nerve injury?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

95

What causes a positive Froment sign?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

96

A 28-year-old man presents with severe leg pain after a tibial fracture. Pain increases with passive stretch and the limb is tense. Pulses are present. What is the diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

97

Which of the following is a late finding in compartment syndrome?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

98

What is the definitive treatment for acute compartment syndrome?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

99

A 40-year-old woman presents with progressive symmetric proximal muscle weakness. ESR and CK are elevated. No rash is present. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

100

A woman presents with periorbital rash, Gottron’s papules, and proximal muscle weakness. What is the best next test?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

101

Which antibody is most specific for dermatomyositis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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102

A patient with dermatomyositis has increased malignancy risk. Which cancer is most commonly associated?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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103

Which biopsy finding differentiates dermatomyositis from polymyositis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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104

A patient with SLE develops proximal muscle weakness. CK is elevated. What is the likely cause?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

105

Which autoantibody is associated with interstitial lung disease in polymyositis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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106

What is the first-line treatment for polymyositis and dermatomyositis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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107

Which test confirms diagnosis of inflammatory myopathy?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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108

What muscle finding is typical in dermatomyositis but absent in MG?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

109

A 40-year-old woman with lupus presents with symmetric joint pain, no deformity, and normal X-ray. What is the likely cause?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

110

What is the primary target of autoimmunity in polymyositis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

111

A 35-year-old man presents with progressive ascending weakness following a diarrheal illness. Reflexes are absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

112

What is the first-line treatment for Guillain-Barré syndrome?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

113

A patient with RA develops cervical spine instability. Which complication must be screened for before intubation?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

114

What is the most specific antibody for rheumatoid arthritis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

115

Which joints are typically spared in RA?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

116

What is the mechanism of joint destruction in RA?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

117

Which biologic targets TNF-alpha in RA treatment?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

118

A 68-year-old man has knee pain worse with activity, no swelling, and brief morning stiffness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

119

Which joint is most commonly affected in hand osteoarthritis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

120

What is the first-line treatment for mild to moderate OA?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

121

What radiologic finding is typical of osteoarthritis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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122

Which risk factor is most strongly associated with development of OA?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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123

What is the most appropriate next step for severe OA unresponsive to conservative treatment?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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124

Which of the following most differentiates RA from OA?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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125

A patient with GBS develops shortness of breath. What is the most important investigation?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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126

Which infectious agent is most commonly linked with GBS?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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127

Which neurologic deficit is most common in early GBS?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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128

What CSF finding supports the diagnosis of GBS?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

129

A 56-year-old woman with RA develops dry eyes and dry mouth. What syndrome does this suggest?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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130

Which cytokine is most central in RA inflammation and is a major therapeutic target?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

131

A 45-year-old man presents with lower back pain radiating down the posterior leg to the foot. The pain worsens with coughing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

132

Which nerve root is affected when there is weakness in foot dorsiflexion and numbness in the first web space?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

133

A patient with sciatica from an L4-L5 disc herniation most likely has compression of which nerve root?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

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134

A 60-year-old man has back pain and leg weakness worsened by walking downhill and relieved when leaning forward. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

135

What is the first-line imaging modality for suspected spinal stenosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

136

What physical exam finding is most suggestive of lumbar radiculopathy?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

137

A 50-year-old man has vertebral body osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing on X-ray. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

138

Which finding differentiates neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

139

A 19-year-old athlete has low back pain and a defect in the pars interarticularis on X-ray. What is the diagnosis?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

140

Which condition is most likely to show anterior vertebral slippage on lateral spine X-ray?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

141

A 40-year-old man with chronic back pain and HLA-B27 positivity develops spinal fusion. What is the likely condition?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

142

What is the Schober test used for?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

143

What is the most effective first-line treatment for lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

144

A patient has low back pain without red flags. When should imaging be considered?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

145

Which of the following is a red flag in low back pain?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

146

Which lifestyle intervention best improves chronic back pain outcomes?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

147

What is the common term for degenerative changes in the spine including disc, bone, and ligaments?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

148

Which spinal level corresponds to the Achilles reflex?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

149

What is the imaging of choice in suspected cauda equina syndrome?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

150

What is the most appropriate next step in a patient with suspected cauda equina syndrome?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

151

A 60-year-old woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis complains of neck pain and tingling in her hands. What serious complication should be suspected?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

152

What imaging is most appropriate to evaluate atlantoaxial instability in RA?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

153

A patient presents with shoulder weakness and numbness over the lateral arm after anterior dislocation. Which nerve is likely injured?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

154

A newborn with shoulder dystocia develops arm adduction and internal rotation with wrist flexion. Which brachial plexus lesion is present?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

155

A 30-year-old motorcyclist sustains a hyperabduction injury and develops hand weakness and Horner’s syndrome. Which plexus injury is this?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

156

What spinal level is tested by the biceps reflex?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

157

A 28-year-old office worker develops numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th fingers. She has a positive elbow flexion test. What is the likely cause?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

158

A 40-year-old woman has neck pain radiating to the lateral forearm and thumb. Biceps reflex is reduced. What nerve root is likely affected?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

159

What is the most common cause of cervical radiculopathy in adults over 50?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

160

A patient with weakness in wrist extensors and numbness over the dorsal hand is most likely experiencing compression at which location?

Orthopedics & Rheumatology

QBank

1

A 6-month-old boy is brought in for a routine visit. He is not yet sitting without support but can transfer objects between his hands and responds to his name. What is the most appropriate assessment?

Pediatrics

QBank

2

At what age is the MMR vaccine first routinely administered?

Pediatrics

QBank

3

A term neonate develops jaundice on day 2 of life. Total bilirubin is 10 mg/dL, predominantly unconjugated. What is the next best step?

Pediatrics

QBank

4

Which of the following is the most common cause of respiratory distress in preterm infants born at 28 weeks gestation?

Pediatrics

QBank

5

A 2-year-old child presents with cyanosis that worsens with exertion. On auscultation, there is a harsh systolic murmur at the left upper sternal border. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

6

A 4-week-old infant presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting after feeds. He appears hungry after vomiting. On examination, a palpable olive-shaped mass is noted in the right upper quadrant. What is the next best step?

Pediatrics

QBank

7

A 5-year-old presents with fever, sore throat, and a “sandpaper”-like rash that started on the trunk. The tongue appears red and bumpy. What is the most likely causative organism?

Pediatrics

QBank

8

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a 6-year-old with an asthma exacerbation and decreased air entry on auscultation?

Pediatrics

QBank

9

A 3-year-old child with poor appetite, pale conjunctiva, and a diet rich in cow’s milk is most likely to have which of the following findings?

Pediatrics

QBank

10

A 7-year-old child presents with a sore throat, drooling, muffled voice, and is sitting in a tripod position. What is the next best step in management?

Pediatrics

QBank

11

A 2-month-old infant born to a hepatitis B-positive mother received the HBV vaccine at birth. What else should have been given?

Pediatrics

QBank

12

A 10-year-old girl presents with itchy vesicular rash that started on the trunk and spread to face and extremities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

13

A 6-year-old boy has bedwetting episodes three times a week. He has no daytime symptoms. What is the best initial management?

Pediatrics

QBank

14

A child presents with delayed passage of meconium, abdominal distension, and explosive stool after digital rectal exam. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

15

What is the earliest developmental milestone expected by 2 months of age?

Pediatrics

QBank

16

A newborn has a positive Barlow and Ortolani test. What is the next best step?

Pediatrics

QBank

17

A 3-year-old boy presents with barking cough and inspiratory stridor. Symptoms worsen at night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

18

A child presents with multiple café-au-lait spots and axillary freckling. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

19

A 1-year-old boy presents with fever, irritability, and a bulging anterior fontanelle. CSF shows high WBCs, low glucose, and high protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

20

A child is diagnosed with Kawasaki disease. Which of the following is the most important complication to monitor for?

Pediatrics

QBank

21

A newborn presents with central cyanosis that does not improve with 100% oxygen. Chest X-ray shows an “egg-on-a-string” appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

22

A 3-year-old with a loud, harsh holosystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border has no cyanosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

23

A 4-year-old child has a continuous murmur at the left infraclavicular area and bounding peripheral pulses. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

24

A newborn has absent femoral pulses and upper limb hypertension. Which condition is most likely?

Pediatrics

QBank

25

A child with Down syndrome is found to have a fixed split S2 and a systolic murmur at the left upper sternal border. What congenital defect is most likely?

Pediatrics

QBank

26

A 5-year-old child presents with exertional syncope and a harsh systolic murmur. ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

27

What is the initial treatment for a cyanotic newborn with suspected congenital heart disease?

Pediatrics

QBank

28

Which congenital heart defect is most associated with maternal diabetes?

Pediatrics

QBank

29

A 2-week-old baby is brought in for a murmur. It is a soft systolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border. The baby is feeding well and gaining weight. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

30

What murmur is classically associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in children?

Pediatrics

QBank

31

A newborn develops cyanosis that worsens with crying and improves when the baby squats. A harsh systolic murmur is heard at the left upper sternal border. What is the best next diagnostic step?

Pediatrics

QBank

32

A 7-year-old girl presents with a murmur and is found to have a fixed, widely split S2. She is otherwise asymptomatic. What is the most likely defect?

Pediatrics

QBank

33

Which congenital heart lesion presents with left ventricular overload, bounding pulses, and widened pulse pressure?

Pediatrics

QBank

34

A 3-month-old presents with tachypnea, poor feeding, and hepatomegaly. ECG shows biventricular hypertrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

35

A term newborn has a loud single S2 and profound cyanosis shortly after birth. Oxygen does not improve saturation. What is the most urgent step?

Pediatrics

QBank

36

A 2-year-old child presents with fever, barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and hoarseness. Symptoms are worse at night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

37

A 3-month-old infant with wheezing, nasal congestion, and poor feeding is diagnosed with bronchiolitis. What is the most likely causative agent?

Pediatrics

QBank

38

What is the best management for a 6-month-old with RSV bronchiolitis who has nasal congestion, mild wheezing, and O2 saturation of 97%?

Pediatrics

QBank

39

A 4-year-old boy presents with sudden onset of coughing and wheezing while eating peanuts. Breath sounds are decreased on the right. What is the next best step?

Pediatrics

QBank

40

A 10-year-old child has chronic cough and daily production of thick sputum. He also has frequent lung infections and failure to thrive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

41

A child with cystic fibrosis has persistent colonization with Pseudomonas. Which medication is used for inhaled chronic suppression?

Pediatrics

QBank

42

A 12-year-old presents with shortness of breath, cough, and wheezing. Symptoms worsen at night. Peak flow is reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

43

Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term controller for moderate persistent asthma in a child?

Pediatrics

QBank

44

A 5-year-old has asthma exacerbation with O2 sat of 88%, use of accessory muscles, and no improvement after 3 albuterol doses. What is the next best step?

Pediatrics

QBank

45

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in children <5 years of age?

Pediatrics

QBank

46

A 7-year-old has dry cough, low-grade fever, and diffuse crackles. CXR shows interstitial infiltrates. Which organism is most likely?

Pediatrics

QBank

47

A child presents with dyspnea and wheezing after playing in a dusty room. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is most likely?

Pediatrics

QBank

48

What is the best screening test for cystic fibrosis in a newborn?

Pediatrics

QBank

49

Which medication helps loosen mucus in children with cystic fibrosis?

Pediatrics

QBank

50

What is the most common cause of acute wheezing in a toddler with a viral illness?

Pediatrics

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51

A 3-year-old child presents with sudden onset of fever, drooling, muffled voice, and prefers to sit leaning forward. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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52

What is the most appropriate immediate management in a suspected case of epiglottitis?

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53

A 2-month-old has inspiratory stridor that worsens when lying down but improves when prone. The child is otherwise well. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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54

Which test is used to confirm laryngomalacia in infants?

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55

A 4-year-old child presents with rhinorrhea, sore throat, and mild fever for 2 days. Physical exam shows erythematous pharynx with no exudate. What is the most likely cause?

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56

Which of the following features favors streptococcal pharyngitis over viral pharyngitis?

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57

What is the recommended first-line treatment for streptococcal pharyngitis in children?

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58

What is the most important reason for treating streptococcal pharyngitis in children?

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59

A 2-year-old with a runny nose, low-grade fever, and mild cough is diagnosed with viral URTI. What is the most appropriate management?

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60

What finding on lateral neck X-ray is characteristic of epiglottitis?

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61

A neonate with laryngomalacia has poor weight gain and severe stridor interfering with feeding. What is the best next step in management?

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62

What is the most common cause of the common cold (viral URTI) in children?

Pediatrics

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63

A 4-year-old presents with high fever, sore throat, and tonsillar exudates. What is the best initial test to confirm diagnosis?

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64

Which feature is more suggestive of viral pharyngitis than bacterial?

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65

A child with mild viral URTI asks for antibiotics. Parents insist. What is the best response?

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66

Which of the following indicates a complication of streptococcal pharyngitis?

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67

A 6-year-old presents with nasal obstruction, mouth breathing, and nighttime snoring. What is the most likely cause?

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68

A child with recurrent sore throats is diagnosed with recurrent streptococcal pharyngitis. What is the most definitive management?

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69

A 7-year-old has unilateral foul-smelling nasal discharge and congestion for 3 days. What is the most likely cause?

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70

What is the most common bacterial cause of acute sinusitis in children?

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71

A 6-year-old child has persistent nasal discharge, cough, and facial pressure for more than 12 days without improvement. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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72

What is the first-line antibiotic for uncomplicated acute bacterial sinusitis in children?

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73

A 2-year-old child presents with ear pain, fever, and a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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74

A 9-month-old with AOM has no recent antibiotics and is otherwise healthy. What is the best treatment?

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75

A child presents with postauricular swelling and protrusion of the ear after recent AOM. What is the most likely complication?

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76

Which pathogen is most commonly associated with bullous myringitis in children?

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77

A child with AOM fails to improve after 48–72 hours of amoxicillin. What is the next step?

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78

A 6-year-old has recurrent AOM (≥3 in 6 months). What is the next step in management?

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79

Which of the following vaccines helps prevent epiglottitis in children?

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80

What is the most common cause of pharyngitis in children aged 3–15 years?

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81

A 4-year-old is vaccinated and develops high fever, cough, conjunctivitis, and a rash starting at the hairline. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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82

What is the best way to prevent otitis media in children?

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83

A child presents with persistent nasal obstruction, purulent nasal discharge, and anosmia. What is the likely chronic complication?

Pediatrics

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84

A 2-week-old infant presents with bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. An abdominal X-ray shows a "double bubble" sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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85

A 6-month-old infant has non-bloody, non-bilious vomiting, especially after feeding. Growth is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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86

A 3-month-old with projectile, non-bilious vomiting and visible peristalsis has hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. What is the diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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87

A 1-year-old child presents with intermittent severe abdominal pain and vomiting. A sausage-shaped abdominal mass is palpated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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88

A neonate fails to pass meconium within 48 hours, has abdominal distension, and explosive stools on rectal exam. What is the likely diagnosis?

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89

A 7-year-old has chronic diarrhea, bloating, and iron deficiency anemia. Anti-TTG antibodies are positive. What is the diagnosis?

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90

Which dietary protein should be avoided in celiac disease?

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91

A child presents with painless rectal bleeding. Colonoscopy reveals a small outpouching in the ileum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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92

A 2-week-old premature infant develops abdominal distension and bloody stools. X-ray shows pneumatosis intestinalis. What is the likely diagnosis?

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93

A child with frequent fatty stools and failure to thrive has a positive sweat chloride test. What is the cause of malabsorption?

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94

What is the best diagnostic test for suspected celiac disease in a symptomatic 8-year-old?

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95

Which of the following is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants worldwide?

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96

A child with gastroenteritis has decreased skin turgor, dry mucosa, and tachycardia. What is the best initial treatment?

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97

Which organism causes bloody diarrhea and seizures in young children?

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98

What is the appropriate treatment for giardiasis in children?

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99

What is the most common cause of painless lower GI bleeding in toddlers?

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100

Which of the following is the first step in evaluating chronic constipation in a healthy child?

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101

A 10-year-old girl presents with fatigue, pruritus, and hepatomegaly. Labs show elevated conjugated bilirubin and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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102

A 6-month-old has persistent jaundice since birth. Labs show direct hyperbilirubinemia. What is the next best test?

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103

A 12-year-old boy has abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. Colonoscopy reveals cobblestoning and skip lesions. What is the diagnosis?

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104

Which lab test is most useful in diagnosing Wilson disease?

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105

A 13-year-old has bloody diarrhea, urgency, and rectal bleeding. Colonoscopy shows continuous mucosal inflammation from rectum. Diagnosis?

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106

A 6-month-old presents with projectile vomiting and weight loss. Electrolytes show metabolic alkalosis. Which electrolyte abnormality is expected?

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107

A 9-year-old has painless rectal bleeding and a technetium-99m scan shows ectopic gastric mucosa. What is the treatment?

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108

A 2-year-old has profuse watery diarrhea after starting apple juice. Vitals are stable. Best management?

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109

A newborn has abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. X-ray shows dilated loops of bowel. What’s the next best step?

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110

A 4-year-old with abdominal pain and currant jelly stools is suspected to have intussusception. What is the most appropriate initial management?

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111

A 7-year-old has poor growth, diarrhea, and dermatitis herpetiformis. Which dietary change is most helpful?

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112

What is the first-line treatment for functional constipation in children?

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113

A child has signs of rickets. What GI condition could lead to this?

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114

A child with Crohn’s disease has perianal skin tags and growth delay. What is the most appropriate maintenance therapy?

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115

A 6-year-old has encopresis and large stools clogging the toilet. Which of the following is most likely?

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116

A 9-year-old with cystic fibrosis presents with steatorrhea and vitamin D deficiency. What is the most appropriate long-term therapy?

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117

A 5-month-old has recurrent regurgitation after feeds but is thriving and otherwise healthy. What is the best initial approach?

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118

A 3-year-old presents with hepatomegaly and fasting hypoglycemia. Labs reveal elevated transaminases and lactic acidosis. What is the likely diagnosis?

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119

A 4-year-old with diarrhea has a stool pH of 4.5 and reducing substances present. What is the likely cause?

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120

A child presents with RUQ pain, fever, and vomiting. Ultrasound shows thickened gallbladder wall and pericholecystic fluid. Best next step?

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121

A 2-year-old with vomiting, lethargy, and hepatomegaly is found to have hypoglycemia and elevated ammonia. There is a history of recent viral illness and aspirin intake. What is the diagnosis?

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122

A 13-year-old with Crohn’s disease has iron deficiency anemia and poor linear growth. What is the next best step?

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123

A 1-month-old baby has persistent jaundice with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia and pale stools. What is the most concerning diagnosis?

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124

A 5-year-old with Down syndrome has recurrent constipation and distension. Rectal exam shows tight anal sphincter with explosive stool. Best next test?

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125

A 7-year-old presents with poor appetite, abdominal pain, and perianal skin tags. What condition is most consistent with this?

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126

What is the main dietary protein responsible for symptoms in cow’s milk protein allergy?

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127

A 15-year-old girl presents with epigastric pain worse after eating, weight loss, and iron deficiency anemia. Endoscopy shows mucosal erosions. Likely diagnosis?

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128

Which of the following is a complication of untreated celiac disease in adolescents?

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129

A 3-year-old has abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, and recent travel. Stool culture shows Shigella. What is the best next step?

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130

A 4-year-old is brought with vomiting, abdominal pain, and bilious emesis. Abdominal X-ray shows air-fluid levels. Diagnosis?

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131

A 1-year-old child is exclusively breastfed and presents with anemia and irritability. What deficiency is most likely?

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132

A 2-year-old child with a history of chronic diarrhea has signs of rickets and low serum phosphate. Which GI condition can cause this?

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133

A child with autism eats only rice and potatoes. He presents with easy bruising and gum bleeding. Which vitamin is likely deficient?

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134

A 5-year-old presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and fasting intolerance. Labs show elevated triglycerides and uric acid. Likely diagnosis?

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135

A newborn is diagnosed with galactosemia. What dietary intervention is required?

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136

A 1-year-old presents with failure to thrive, eczema, and bloody diarrhea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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137

A toddler eats a diet of polished white rice and develops irritability, ataxia, and peripheral neuropathy. What is the most likely deficiency?

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138

A child with chronic diarrhea and FTT is started on TPN. After a few weeks, he develops cholestasis. What is the most likely cause?

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139

A 2-month-old infant has persistent vomiting, lethargy, and metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap. What condition should be suspected?

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140

A malnourished child is re-fed with high-calorie diet and develops seizures and edema. What is the most likely cause?

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141

A child with prolonged diarrhea is found to have low potassium and metabolic acidosis. What is the cause of acidosis?

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142

A 1-year-old presents with hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, and a positive reducing substance in urine. Diagnosis?

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143

A 5-year-old with chronic constipation is passing large, infrequent stools and now has encopresis. What is the most effective treatment?

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144

A 6-month-old on formula feeds has anemia and low reticulocyte count. Labs show low ferritin. Next best step?

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145

A 7-year-old has hepatosplenomegaly and low ceruloplasmin. Slit lamp shows golden-brown ring at cornea. Likely diagnosis?

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146

A 10-year-old presents with hematemesis after a severe bout of retching from gastroenteritis. Vitals are stable. What is the most likely cause?

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147

A 1-year-old with iron deficiency anemia is found to drink >30 oz of cow’s milk daily. What is the mechanism of anemia?

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148

A 2-year-old child with known pica presents with abdominal pain and constipation. X-ray shows radiopaque material. Diagnosis?

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149

Which of the following foods is most commonly associated with infant botulism?

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150

A 4-year-old presents with watery diarrhea, no fever, and no blood. History of picnic 6 hours ago. Most likely pathogen?

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151

A 12-year-old has sudden RUQ pain, jaundice, and elevated transaminases. No history of viral illness. Coombs test is negative. What should be checked next?

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152

Which vitamin deficiency can occur with long-term cholestasis in a child?

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153

A 5-year-old has profuse diarrhea after farm visit. Stool is non-bloody. Ova and cysts show flagellated organisms. Diagnosis?

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154

A 6-week-old presents with bilious vomiting. Upper GI series shows corkscrew appearance. Diagnosis?

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155

A 5-month-old has recurrent vomiting, poor weight gain, and wheezing. What is the best initial step?

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156

What is the most common cause of GI bleeding in neonates?

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157

A child with diarrhea is found to have a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis and hypokalemia. Likely etiology?

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158

A child presents with RUQ pain, fever, and jaundice. What is the triad called?

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159

A child with vomiting and diarrhea has sunken eyes, dry mucosa, and capillary refill of 3 seconds. What is the degree of dehydration?

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160

A 2-year-old ingests an unknown liquid and presents with bloody vomiting and drooling. What is the most likely ingestion?

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161

A 2-month-old infant presents with fever and irritability. Urinalysis shows positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase. What is the next step?

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162

What is the most common causative organism of pediatric UTI?

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163

A 5-year-old girl presents with fever and dysuria. UA shows WBCs and nitrites. She is stable. Best initial treatment?

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164

What is the best method to obtain a urine sample in a 6-week-old infant for culture?

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165

A 3-year-old boy has his first febrile UTI. What imaging should be done after treatment?

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166

A 2-year-old with recurrent UTIs and abnormal ultrasound shows dilated ureters. What is the next test?

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167

What is the most likely long-term complication of untreated vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)?

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168

A 6-month-old with UTI has normal ultrasound. Next best step?

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169

A child on ceftriaxone for UTI develops biliary sludge. What is the mechanism?

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170

A 5-year-old with known vesicoureteral reflux presents with new-onset hypertension. What is the cause?

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171

What is the first sign of dehydration in infants?

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172

Which electrolyte is most commonly low in a child with persistent vomiting?

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173

A child with nephrotic syndrome is started on steroids. What is the most common infectious risk?

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174

What is the most appropriate imaging to evaluate renal scarring after multiple UTIs?

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175

Which of the following is a risk factor for pediatric UTI in girls?

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176

A 7-year-old girl has nocturnal enuresis. She urinates normally during the day. Best initial management?

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177

A 3-year-old has frequent UTIs and daytime incontinence. She has no known anatomical abnormalities. What is the next best step?

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178

A 3-year-old presents with generalized edema, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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179

A child with nephrotic syndrome develops fever and abdominal pain. What life-threatening complication should be suspected?

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180

A 6-year-old presents with hematuria, hypertension, and periorbital swelling 2 weeks after impetigo. Likely diagnosis?

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181

A 3-year-old develops hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury after bloody diarrhea. What is the most likely cause?

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182

A child with HUS develops seizure and altered sensorium. What is the most likely cause?

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183

What is the first step in management of hyperkalemia in a child with renal failure and ECG changes?

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184

A child with vomiting and dehydration is started on IV fluids. After rapid correction, he develops seizures. Likely cause?

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185

A 5-year-old with nephrotic syndrome on steroids develops gross hematuria. Urine culture is negative. Most likely diagnosis?

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186

What is the gold standard for diagnosing vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)?

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187

A 6-year-old has a blood pressure >95th percentile on 3 occasions. What is the diagnosis?

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188

A 5-year-old girl presents with periorbital swelling and cola-colored urine. What is the most likely mechanism?

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189

A child is dehydrated with sodium of 170 mEq/L. What is the most serious risk if corrected too quickly?

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190

What is the best way to confirm proteinuria found on a random urine dipstick?

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191

A 10-year-old with fever and joint pain develops hematuria and red cell casts. Likely diagnosis?

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192

A 9-year-old with hematuria has normal BP and creatinine. UA shows only blood. Next step?

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193

Which electrolyte imbalance is expected in a child with severe diarrhea?

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194

A child is found to have asymptomatic hematuria and hearing loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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195

What is the most common cause of hypertension in children?

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196

A 13-year-old girl has HTN and hypokalemia. What is the likely cause?

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197

A child with nephrotic syndrome is treated with steroids. What is the most common side effect to monitor?

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198

A 4-year-old has gross hematuria 1 day after upper respiratory infection. Likely cause?

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199

A child with bilateral renal agenesis will most likely present with:

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200

A 7-year-old with UTI presents with right-sided abdominal mass and hematuria. What is the most concerning diagnosis?

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201

A 2-year-old has hypotonia, feeding difficulties in infancy, obesity, and almond-shaped eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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202

A child with Prader-Willi syndrome is at greatest long-term risk of developing which complication?

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203

A boy with progressive muscle weakness and calf pseudohypertrophy is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. What is the genetic defect?

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204

What is the most common cause of death in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

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205

A 6-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy is found to have elevated serum:

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206

A child with developmental delay, inappropriate laughter, seizures, and ataxia likely has:

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207

A 16-year-old girl has primary amenorrhea, short stature, and webbed neck. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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208

Which cardiac abnormality is most associated with Turner syndrome?

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209

A male teenager is tall with small testes, gynecomastia, and mild learning disability. What is the likely karyotype?

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210

A 4-year-old girl with developmental delay has hand-wringing, regression of speech, and loss of milestones. What is the likely diagnosis?

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211

A child with Fragile X syndrome is most likely to exhibit:

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212

What is the inheritance pattern of Fragile X syndrome?

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213

A neonate has macroglossia, omphalocele, and hypoglycemia. What syndrome is likely?

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214

What tumor is a child with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome most at risk for?

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215

Which of the following chromosomal findings is consistent with Down syndrome?

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216

What is the most common congenital heart defect in Down syndrome?

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217

A 16-year-old girl has primary amenorrhea. She is tall, has breasts, but no pubic hair. Likely diagnosis?

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218

A child with Down syndrome should be screened for which endocrine disorder?

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219

A neonate has microcephaly, clenched fists, rocker-bottom feet, and heart defects. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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220

A child with developmental delay, polydactyly, and cleft lip is likely to have:

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221

A 10-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Her blood glucose is 320 mg/dL and urine is positive for ketones. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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222

What is the most appropriate initial insulin regimen in a newly diagnosed 8-year-old with T1DM?

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223

A newborn female presents with ambiguous genitalia and hypotension. Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone is elevated. Diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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224

What electrolyte abnormality is typically seen in salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

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225

A 14-year-old girl has no breast development or menses. Height is 5’7”. Pubic hair is absent. Karyotype is 46,XY. What is the diagnosis?

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226

A 6-year-old presents with early breast development and pubic hair. Bone age is advanced. LH rises with GnRH stimulation. What is the diagnosis?

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227

A 4-year-old with McCune-Albright syndrome may present with:

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228

A 13-year-old girl has not started puberty. She has anosmia and low LH/FSH. Diagnosis?

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229

A newborn has a large anterior fontanelle, umbilical hernia, hypotonia, and prolonged jaundice. What condition is likely?

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230

What is the first screening test for congenital hypothyroidism in newborns?

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231

A 12-year-old with obesity, acanthosis nigricans, and elevated fasting glucose likely has:

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232

A child with polyuria and low urine osmolality despite hypernatremia is diagnosed with:

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233

A neonate has ambiguous genitalia. Karyotype is 46,XX. What is the most likely cause?

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234

A child with hypothyroidism is given excess levothyroxine. Which symptom might develop?

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235

Which of the following is the most common endocrine cause of short stature in children?

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236

A child with tall stature and delayed puberty has small testes and gynecomastia. What syndrome is likely?

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237

A 12-year-old girl has menses and breast development but is short and has webbed neck. Most likely cause?

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238

Which test best differentiates central from peripheral precocious puberty?

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239

A child with short stature has normal TSH, low IGF-1. Bone age is delayed. Best next step?

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240

A 15-year-old girl has irregular periods, acne, and hirsutism. US shows polycystic ovaries. Most likely diagnosis?

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241

A 3-year-old presents with sudden loss of consciousness and generalized stiffening followed by jerking of limbs lasting 2 minutes. Postictal drowsiness is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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242

A 5-year-old girl has episodes of blank staring lasting 10 seconds with eyelid fluttering. No postictal confusion. Diagnosis?

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243

What is the first-line treatment for absence seizures?

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244

A 6-month-old presents with clusters of brief flexor spasms on waking, regression in development, and hypsarrhythmia on EEG. Diagnosis?

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245

What is the most appropriate initial treatment for infantile spasms?

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246

A 2-year-old with microcephaly and delayed milestones has spasticity in all limbs. MRI shows periventricular leukomalacia. Diagnosis?

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247

A 10-year-old has severe headaches, photophobia, and vomiting. She prefers to lie still. Neurologic exam is normal. Diagnosis?

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248

What is the first-line abortive treatment for pediatric migraine?

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249

A child with epilepsy has frequent staring spells, unresponsiveness, and automatisms. EEG shows focal onset. What seizure type?

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250

A 5-year-old presents with multiple café-au-lait spots and axillary freckling. Which condition is most likely?

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251

A 3-month-old presents with seizures, ash-leaf spots, and cardiac rhabdomyomas. Likely diagnosis?

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252

A 1-year-old presents with regression of milestones, loss of vision, cherry red spot on macula, and no hepatosplenomegaly. What is the diagnosis?

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253

What is the most common cause of global developmental delay in children?

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254

A 2-month-old presents with poor suck, hypotonia, and a history of maternal honey use. What is the diagnosis?

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255

A child presents with focal seizures, port-wine stain on face, and developmental delay. Likely diagnosis?

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256

What is the most common cause of seizures in neonates?

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257

A child with ataxia, oculocutaneous telangiectasias, and recurrent infections likely has:

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258

Which condition is associated with "slipped capital femoral epiphysis" and delayed puberty?

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259

A child has recurrent febrile seizures. What is the most appropriate long-term management?

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260

A child with SMA type 1 will show:

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261

A 2-month-old infant has asymmetric thigh folds and limited abduction of the left hip. What is the best initial diagnostic test?

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262

What is the treatment of choice for confirmed DDH in a 3-month-old infant?

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263

A 13-year-old obese boy presents with groin pain and inability to bear weight. The leg is externally rotated. Diagnosis?

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264

What is the most appropriate management of SCFE once diagnosed?

Pediatrics

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265

A 7-year-old presents with gradual-onset limp and hip pain. X-ray shows fragmentation and flattening of femoral head. Likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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266

A 12-year-old girl has uneven shoulders noted during a school screening. Forward bend test is positive. What is the next step?

Pediatrics

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267

At what Cobb angle should bracing be considered for idiopathic scoliosis?

Pediatrics

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268

A 2-year-old presents with bowing of the legs and frontal bossing. Labs show low phosphate and high ALP. Likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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269

What is the first-line treatment for nutritional rickets in toddlers?

Pediatrics

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270

A newborn has a foot turned inward and downward, with limited dorsiflexion. Diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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271

What is the standard treatment for congenital clubfoot?

Pediatrics

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272

A toddler limps in the morning and then walks normally later in the day. X-ray is normal. Diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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273

A 3-year-old presents with refusal to walk, fever, and hip pain. ESR and CRP are elevated. Best initial step?

Pediatrics

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274

Kocher’s criteria help differentiate:

Pediatrics

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275

A child presents with an anterior bowing of the tibia and a dimple over the shin. X-ray shows pseudarthrosis. Likely cause?

Pediatrics

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276

A 5-year-old boy with painless limp has reduced internal hip rotation. X-ray shows increased density of femoral head. Diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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277

What is the cause of growing pains in children?

Pediatrics

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278

What fracture is most common in children falling on an outstretched hand?

Pediatrics

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279

What is the best imaging for nursemaid’s elbow?

Pediatrics

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280

A neonate is found to have a midline sacral dimple. What is the next best step?

Pediatrics

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281

A 7-year-old presents with painless limping and inward pointing of toes. Examination reveals increased femoral anteversion. Next best step?

Pediatrics

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282

What is the most common cause of in-toeing in a 2-year-old child?

Pediatrics

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283

What is the best management for intoeing due to internal tibial torsion in a healthy 2-year-old?

Pediatrics

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284

A 10-year-old presents with lateral curvature of the spine and shoulder asymmetry. Cobb angle is 55°. What is the best next step?

Pediatrics

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285

A 6-year-old girl has persistent heel pain, especially after activity. X-ray shows fragmentation of calcaneal apophysis. Diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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286

A 4-year-old presents with a painless limp. Parents note the leg appears shorter. X-ray shows flattening of femoral head. Diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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287

What is the most common location for osteomyelitis in children?

Pediatrics

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288

What is the most common causative organism of osteomyelitis in a healthy child?

Pediatrics

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289

A 12-year-old boy has bone pain and a sunburst pattern on X-ray. Diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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290

A 14-year-old presents with tibial pain, fever, and onion-skin appearance on X-ray. Diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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291

A 13-year-old boy with pain at the tibial tubercle worsens with jumping. Diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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292

What is the management of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

Pediatrics

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293

A toddler has elbow pain after being lifted by the arm. Arm is held pronated, elbow slightly flexed. Diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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294

Which vitamin deficiency causes increased fracture risk in children with malnutrition?

Pediatrics

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295

A neonate has multiple fractures and blue sclerae. Diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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296

A 7-year-old boy presents with a painless limp and thickening of the Achilles tendon. Likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics

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297

A 4-year-old child presents with limping and fever. Hip is flexed and externally rotated. WBC and ESR are elevated. What is the concern?

Pediatrics

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298

Which is the most common bone tumor in children?

Pediatrics

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299

What clinical sign is most suggestive of non-accidental trauma in a child with a fracture?

Pediatrics

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300

A child with bilateral flat feet has flexible arches and no pain. Next step?

Pediatrics

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1

A 7-year-old boy has difficulty sitting still, often leaves his seat in class, and frequently interrupts others. These behaviors have persisted for over 8 months and occur both at home and school. What is the best initial treatment?

Psychiatry

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2

A 5-year-old boy is disruptive at preschool and has difficulty focusing. He fidgets constantly and blurts out answers. Which diagnostic requirement must be met to confirm ADHD?

Psychiatry

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3

A 9-year-old girl diagnosed with ADHD is prescribed methylphenidate. Which side effect should the parents be warned about?

Psychiatry

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4

A 6-year-old with ADHD is unable to tolerate stimulants due to tics. What is the best next alternative?

Psychiatry

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5

What is the best initial treatment for a 4-year-old child diagnosed with ADHD?

Psychiatry

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6

Which comorbid condition is most frequently associated with ADHD?

Psychiatry

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7

A 3-year-old child shows poor eye contact, delayed language, and repetitive hand-flapping. What is the most appropriate next step?

Psychiatry

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8

Which of the following is most predictive of prognosis in a child with autism?

Psychiatry

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9

A 4-year-old boy has rigid routines, avoids eye contact, and has delayed speech. He repeatedly lines up toys. What treatment modality improves social skills?

Psychiatry

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10

A 5-year-old girl with autism shows aggression and frequent meltdowns. Which pharmacological agent is most appropriate?

Psychiatry

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11

A 10-year-old boy often argues with adults, refuses to comply with rules, and deliberately annoys others. These behaviors have persisted for 9 months and are not aggressive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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12

A 12-year-old boy has been suspended for setting fires and injuring animals. He lies frequently and shows no remorse. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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13

What is the most effective intervention for a 6-year-old with oppositional defiant disorder?

Psychiatry

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14

A 15-year-old boy with conduct disorder is most at risk of developing which adult psychiatric disorder?

Psychiatry

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15

A 13-year-old girl has sudden, brief outbursts of rage out of proportion to provocation. In between, she is remorseful. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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16

A 5-year-old child has an IQ of 50, struggles with toileting and language, and needs support in daily activities. What is the likely classification of intellectual disability?

Psychiatry

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17

What is the most common preventable cause of intellectual disability?

Psychiatry

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18

A 6-year-old boy with known intellectual disability has limited speech and poor social skills. He cannot dress himself but follows single-step commands. What is the best long-term management goal?

Psychiatry

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19

Which of the following best differentiates intellectual disability from specific learning disorder?

Psychiatry

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20

What is the most appropriate initial test in a child with global developmental delay and facial dysmorphism?

Psychiatry

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21

A 7-year-old with moderate intellectual disability is placed in a mainstream class. Which of the following supports best promotes learning?

Psychiatry

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22

A 3-year-old child with intellectual disability displays limited speech and toe-walking. Genetic testing shows CGG trinucleotide repeat. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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23

A 2-year-old boy does not respond to his name and avoids eye contact. There is no evidence of intellectual disability. What is the most appropriate test?

Psychiatry

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24

What is the earliest age at which ASD can be reliably diagnosed?

Psychiatry

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25

Which therapy is most beneficial for developing social and communication skills in children with intellectual disability?

Psychiatry

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26

A 9-year-old boy presents with multiple motor tics (eye blinking, shoulder shrugging) and one vocal tic (throat clearing) occurring daily for over a year. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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27

Which of the following is the most effective first-line pharmacologic treatment for severe tics in Tourette syndrome?

Psychiatry

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28

A 7-year-old with vocal and motor tics also has difficulty sitting still, poor focus, and interrupts frequently. Which comorbidity is most commonly associated with Tourette syndrome?

Psychiatry

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29

A 10-year-old boy has motor tics for 6 months. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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30

A 12-year-old girl with Tourette syndrome has mild tics and significant test anxiety. What is the best initial treatment approach?

Psychiatry

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31

A 25-year-old woman presents with persistent sadness, fatigue, low energy, and loss of interest in activities for the past 3 weeks. She denies suicidal ideation but reports poor sleep and low appetite. She recently lost her job. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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32

A 40-year-old man complains of chronic low mood and low self-esteem for over 3 years. He works full time but lacks joy and motivation. He denies suicidal ideation. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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33

A 16-year-old boy presents with social withdrawal, poor appetite, and excessive guilt. His symptoms have worsened over the past month. He denies suicidal ideation but often feels worthless. What is the best initial step in management?

Psychiatry

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34

A 70-year-old woman presents with recent onset of depressive symptoms, including poor sleep, anhedonia, and cognitive slowing. Her medical history includes hypertension. What is the most appropriate next step?

Psychiatry

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35

A 29-year-old woman presents with postpartum sadness, low energy, and crying spells 4 days after delivery. She is bonding well with the baby and feeding adequately. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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36

A 35-year-old man has been on sertraline 100 mg for depression for 6 weeks but reports minimal improvement. What is the best next step?

Psychiatry

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37

A 27-year-old woman with MDD presents with excessive sleep, increased appetite, heavy limbs, and mood reactivity. What subtype is most likely?

Psychiatry

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38

A 45-year-old man with depression experiences auditory hallucinations of voices telling him he is worthless. What is the appropriate treatment?

Psychiatry

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39

A 30-year-old woman with history of two MDD episodes presents for follow-up. She is currently euthymic. What is the best maintenance strategy?

Psychiatry

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40

A 21-year-old college student presents with depressive symptoms and reports hearing voices when alone. There is no mania or drug use. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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41

A 19-year-old man has depressive symptoms that worsen during winter months. He feels lethargic, sleeps more, and craves carbohydrates. What is the best initial treatment?

Psychiatry

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42

A 28-year-old woman with depression is pregnant in the first trimester. She has responded well to sertraline in the past. What is the best course of action?

Psychiatry

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43

A 28-year-old woman presents 4 weeks after giving birth. She reports persistent low mood, lack of interest in her baby, insomnia, and feelings of worthlessness. She often cries and feels like a "bad mother." These symptoms began 2 weeks postpartum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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44

A 32-year-old woman gave birth 5 days ago. She experiences mood swings, tearfulness, and anxiety but is still caring for her infant. She sleeps poorly and worries excessively about her ability to parent. What is the best management?

Psychiatry

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45

A 26-year-old new mother reports hearing voices telling her the baby is evil. She appears disoriented, refuses to eat, and says she must protect the baby from a "demon." What is the most appropriate next step?

Psychiatry

QBank

46

A 34-year-old woman with past history of major depression is 6 weeks postpartum and feels hopeless, fatigued, and overwhelmed. She has trouble bonding with her baby. What is the best first-line treatment?

Psychiatry

QBank

47

A 29-year-old woman with postpartum depression has been on sertraline for 4 weeks with minimal improvement. She is breastfeeding and tolerating the medication well. What is the next best step?

Psychiatry

QBank

48

A 33-year-old woman, 3 months postpartum, presents with severe depression and poor bonding with her baby. She expresses passive suicidal ideation but denies a plan. What is the most appropriate management?

Psychiatry

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49

A 30-year-old woman, 2 months postpartum, reports persistent low mood and guilt. She feels disconnected from her baby and reports occasional thoughts of "just disappearing." She has no psychosis or plan to harm herself. What additional screening tool would help guide treatment?

Psychiatry

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50

A 27-year-old new mother with postpartum depression asks about continuing to breastfeed while on sertraline. What should you advise?

Psychiatry

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51

A 32-year-old woman complains of constant worry about work, finances, and health for the past 9 months. She has difficulty sleeping, feels fatigued, and finds it hard to concentrate. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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52

A 38-year-old man with GAD has been on sertraline for 3 weeks with partial improvement in anxiety but persistent insomnia. What adjunctive treatment is appropriate?

Psychiatry

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53

A 23-year-old woman avoids social events due to fear of being judged or humiliated. She experiences palpitations and blushing when speaking in groups. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

Psychiatry

QBank

54

A 28-year-old teacher gets anxious and trembles when giving presentations but is otherwise socially confident. What is the best treatment?

Psychiatry

QBank

55

A 26-year-old woman avoids crowded places and public transport due to fear of not escaping if she panics. What is the likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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56

A 22-year-old college student suddenly experiences palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath, and fear of dying. Symptoms resolve in 20 minutes. What is the best next step?

Psychiatry

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57

A 30-year-old man has had 4 panic attacks over 2 months. He avoids traveling alone and worries about when the next attack will happen. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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58

A 24-year-old man with panic disorder is started on an SSRI. What should be given concurrently in the first few weeks?

Psychiatry

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59

What is the most effective long-term treatment for panic disorder?

Psychiatry

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60

A patient with panic disorder is afraid of visiting malls or crowded spaces alone. Which diagnosis is most likely associated?

Psychiatry

QBank

61

A 24-year-old man is brought to the ER by his family due to erratic behavior. He hasn’t slept in 3 days, speaks rapidly, and claims he’s destined to become a billionaire within a week. He is irritable and attempted to invest all his savings in a risky scheme. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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62

A 29-year-old woman with bipolar I disorder reports decreased sleep, excessive talking, and impulsive spending. She feels "on top of the world." Symptoms have lasted 4 days and have not impaired her functioning. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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63

A 35-year-old woman presents with alternating periods of depression and elevated mood with increased energy. She reports episodes of overspending, sleeplessness, and racing thoughts, but none lasted more than 4 days. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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64

A 27-year-old man with bipolar I disorder presents with acute mania. He is not sleeping, is highly distractible, and making grandiose claims. What is the best first-line treatment?

Psychiatry

QBank

65

A 30-year-old woman with bipolar disorder wants to become pregnant. Which medication should be avoided due to teratogenicity?

Psychiatry

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66

A 34-year-old man with bipolar I disorder stopped taking his medications. He now presents with euphoric mood, pressured speech, and increased goal-directed activity. What is the most important next step?

Psychiatry

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67

A patient with bipolar I disorder has been stable on lithium for several years. What regular monitoring is required?

Psychiatry

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68

A 26-year-old woman with bipolar disorder experiences recurrent depressive episodes. Which medication is preferred to prevent depressive relapse?

Psychiatry

QBank

69

A patient with bipolar disorder develops a tremor and confusion. Serum lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. What is the most appropriate management?

Psychiatry

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70

A 19-year-old man has a family history of bipolar disorder. He presents with depression and is prescribed fluoxetine. Two weeks later, he becomes irritable, euphoric, and impulsive. What likely happened?

Psychiatry

QBank

71

A 23-year-old man believes he is being watched by secret agents. He hears voices mocking him and has become socially withdrawn. Symptoms have been present for 8 months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

72

A 21-year-old college student develops paranoid delusions and auditory hallucinations. Symptoms last 5 weeks before resolving with treatment. He returns to baseline. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

73

A 27-year-old woman reports hearing voices and believes her coworkers are poisoning her coffee. These symptoms began 2 weeks ago after a stressful divorce. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

74

A 30-year-old man has paranoid delusions and auditory hallucinations. He is also depressed and has suicidal thoughts. He has experienced hallucinations even during times without mood symptoms. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

75

A 45-year-old man with schizophrenia is nonadherent to medication and has been rehospitalized twice this year. What is the best management option?

Psychiatry

QBank

76

A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia has failed trials of 3 antipsychotics. He continues to hear voices and exhibits disorganized behavior. What is the next best treatment?

Psychiatry

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77

A 28-year-old man with schizophrenia on risperidone develops tremor, muscle stiffness, and a shuffling gait. What is the likely cause?

Psychiatry

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78

A patient with schizophrenia is treated with antipsychotics. He now has persistent lip-smacking and tongue movements. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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79

A 40-year-old man with schizophrenia becomes extremely rigid, confused, and febrile. His CK is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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80

A 25-year-old man experiences auditory hallucinations and paranoid delusions. He is functional in school and symptoms have lasted 2 months. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

81

A 29-year-old man with schizophrenia is started on risperidone. One week later, he develops painful neck spasms and difficulty moving his head. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

82

A patient on haloperidol complains of feeling extremely restless and unable to sit still. Examination reveals constant leg movement. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

83

A 35-year-old woman on chronic risperidone therapy develops repetitive tongue movements and facial grimacing. What is the most appropriate next step?

Psychiatry

QBank

84

A 45-year-old man on high-dose haloperidol becomes febrile and confused. Exam reveals lead-pipe rigidity and elevated creatine kinase. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

85

A 25-year-old man is newly diagnosed with schizophrenia. He is sexually active and concerned about weight gain. Which antipsychotic is best suited for him?

Psychiatry

QBank

86

A patient with schizophrenia is started on clozapine after failing multiple antipsychotics. What is the most serious potential side effect to monitor?

Psychiatry

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87

A 31-year-old woman with schizophrenia is stable on olanzapine. At follow-up, she has gained 12 kg and her fasting glucose is elevated. What is the best next step?

Psychiatry

QBank

88

A 33-year-old man with schizophrenia experiences persistent hallucinations despite compliance with risperidone. What is the next best step?

Psychiatry

QBank

89

A patient is admitted with psychosis and is placed on haloperidol. On day 2, he develops difficulty swallowing and upward eye deviation. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Psychiatry

QBank

90

A patient on multiple medications presents with confusion, tremor, fever, and dilated pupils. Clonus is present on exam. He recently started an SSRI with his antipsychotic. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

91

A 22-year-old woman presents with a history of unstable relationships, impulsivity, and recurrent self-cutting behavior. She describes chronic emptiness and intense fear of abandonment. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

92

A 25-year-old woman with BPD is found cutting her arms after a breakup. She reports feeling "numb and empty." What is the most appropriate treatment approach?

Psychiatry

QBank

93

A patient with BPD alternates between idolizing and devaluing her therapist. She says, “You're the only one who understands me,” then accuses them of betrayal. What is this behavior called?

Psychiatry

QBank

94

A 29-year-old man believes his coworkers are plotting against him. He avoids social interactions and interprets benign comments as hostile. He has no hallucinations. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

95

A 31-year-old woman appears theatrical, dresses provocatively, and constantly seeks attention. She becomes emotional easily and is overly familiar with her physician. Which personality disorder best fits?

Psychiatry

QBank

96

A 40-year-old man with narcissistic personality disorder is furious after receiving constructive feedback at work. What defense mechanism is most likely at play?

Psychiatry

QBank

97

A 35-year-old man with antisocial behavior has a long history of lying, arrests, and no remorse. He was diagnosed with conduct disorder at age 15. What is the current diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

98

A 34-year-old woman is overly dependent on her partner, avoids decisions, and seeks constant reassurance. She panics at the thought of being alone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

99

A 26-year-old man is socially isolated, prefers solitary activities, and has little interest in relationships. He does not express much emotion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

100

A 29-year-old man is eccentric and socially awkward. He has odd beliefs, magical thinking, and dresses unusually. He has no close friends and often misunderstands social cues. What is the likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

101

A 25-year-old man has intrusive thoughts about harming his roommate, which he finds distressing and irrational. He checks door locks repeatedly to prevent harm. What is the best diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

102

A woman is convinced her neighbor is spying on her through the TV. She functions well otherwise and has held this belief for over 2 months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

103

What distinguishes obsessions in OCD from delusions?

Psychiatry

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104

A 20-year-old woman spends 2 hours daily rearranging her bookshelf “until it feels right.” She knows it’s excessive but can’t stop. What is the best initial treatment?

Psychiatry

QBank

105

A 24-year-old woman with OCD reports intrusive thoughts of contaminating others. She washes her hands 30–40 times per day. What brain regions are involved?

Psychiatry

QBank

106

A woman is preoccupied with a minor blemish on her cheek, repeatedly checks mirrors, and avoids social gatherings. What is the best diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

107

A 17-year-old girl has BMI of 16.2, bradycardia, lanugo, and intense fear of gaining weight. She denies a problem. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

108

A 20-year-old woman eats large quantities of food and then vomits to prevent weight gain. Her BMI is 22. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

109

A patient with anorexia nervosa is hospitalized for refeeding. On day 3, she develops confusion, muscle weakness, and cardiac arrhythmia. What is the cause?

Psychiatry

QBank

110

A 21-year-old female with bulimia nervosa is started on fluoxetine. What side effect must be monitored in her case?

Psychiatry

QBank

111

A 33-year-old woman complains of multiple physical symptoms—fatigue, joint pain, and abdominal discomfort—for over 6 months. Workup is negative, but she frequently visits doctors and is highly distressed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

112

A 45-year-old man frequently visits multiple doctors for mild abdominal discomfort, requesting numerous tests. He insists something is seriously wrong despite normal labs. He shows little concern about the symptoms themselves. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

113

A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden onset blindness after witnessing her child’s accident. Neuro exam and imaging are normal. She is unconcerned about her vision loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

114

A patient presents with seizures during times of stress. Witnesses note eye closure and side-to-side head movement. Workup is negative. What supports a diagnosis of conversion disorder?

Psychiatry

QBank

115

A woman with no medical illness presents with fever and claims to have lymphoma. She injects herself with bacteria to induce symptoms. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

116

A 40-year-old inmate reports back pain and demands opioids. Imaging is normal. When refused meds, he becomes aggressive and refuses further exams. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

117

A 35-year-old woman repeatedly visits her doctor with vague symptoms and multiple prior surgeries. Her records reveal inconsistent histories and refusal to allow contact with prior providers. What is the best next step?

Psychiatry

QBank

118

What is the main distinction between malingering and factitious disorder?

Psychiatry

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119

A patient reports chronic pain without any identifiable pathology. She is distressed, has seen multiple doctors, and insists something is wrong. All labs are normal. What is the most appropriate next step?

Psychiatry

QBank

120

A patient with illness anxiety disorder is constantly worried about having cancer, despite normal evaluations. What is the best long-term treatment?

Psychiatry

QBank

121

A 74-year-old woman is brought in for confusion and visual hallucinations. Her symptoms began abruptly 2 days ago during hospitalization for pneumonia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

122

A 78-year-old man with Alzheimer’s disease is brought in for increasing aggression. Which pharmacologic option is appropriate for short-term behavioral control?

Psychiatry

QBank

123

Which feature best differentiates delirium from dementia?

Psychiatry

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124

A 76-year-old man has worsening forgetfulness and gets lost in his own neighborhood. He scores 20/30 on MMSE. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

125

A patient with moderate Alzheimer’s disease is started on donepezil. What is the mechanism of action?

Psychiatry

QBank

126

A 72-year-old woman presents with bradykinesia, visual hallucinations, and cognitive fluctuations. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

127

A patient with Alzheimer’s is started on memantine in addition to donepezil. What is its role?

Psychiatry

QBank

128

What is the most important non-pharmacological approach to managing Alzheimer’s disease?

Psychiatry

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129

A 69-year-old man shows sudden cognitive decline after a stroke. He has executive dysfunction and focal neurologic signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

130

An 80-year-old man is confused after hip surgery. His attention fluctuates and he is agitated at night. Labs show hyponatremia. What is the next step?

Psychiatry

QBank

131

A 68-year-old man is grieving the loss of his wife 3 weeks ago. He cries frequently, feels guilty about not doing enough, but still eats and engages with friends. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

132

A 33-year-old woman is tearful and anxious after job loss. She reports sleep disturbance and trouble concentrating but functions at home. Symptoms have lasted 2 months. What is the best diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

133

A child begins wetting the bed and crying excessively after their parents divorce. Grades have dropped, but there are no hallucinations or mood episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

134

A 10-year-old girl presents with frequent abdominal pain and vomiting, always before school. No medical cause is found. Symptoms resolve on weekends. What is the most likely explanation?

Psychiatry

QBank

135

What is the most common symptom a child malingers?

Psychiatry

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136

A 6-year-old with frequent ER visits for unexplained seizures is found to have normal EEGs and inconsistent history from the mother. Hospital staff observe the mother inducing symptoms. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

137

In factitious disorder imposed on another, who receives the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

138

A 35-year-old woman is grieving 14 months after losing her child. She has persistent yearning, cannot function at work, and avoids reminders. What is the best diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

139

What differentiates normal grief from major depressive disorder?

Psychiatry

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140

A 12-year-old boy pretends to have leg pain every Monday before PE class. He is otherwise well and symptoms vanish by evening. What is the best approach?

Psychiatry

QBank

141

A 24-year-old man reports daytime sleep attacks and vivid hallucinations before sleep. He experiences sudden muscle weakness after laughter. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

QBank

142

What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for narcolepsy?

Psychiatry

QBank

143

A man found unresponsive has pinpoint pupils, bradypnea, and decreased breath sounds. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?

Psychiatry

QBank

144

A heroin user in withdrawal presents with piloerection, diarrhea, yawning, and myalgias. What is the best management?

Psychiatry

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145

A 28-year-old man wants to quit smoking. He has a history of depression. What pharmacotherapy is most suitable?

Psychiatry

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146

Which symptom is most common in nicotine withdrawal?

Psychiatry

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147

Which agent acts as a partial agonist at the nicotinic receptor and helps with smoking cessation?

Psychiatry

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148

What is the first step in motivational interviewing?

Psychiatry

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149

Which statement best reflects the spirit of motivational interviewing?

Psychiatry

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150

In motivational interviewing, what is the most appropriate response when a patient says, “I know I should quit, but I really like smoking”?

Psychiatry

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151

A 25-year-old man presents to the ED with agitation, dilated pupils, psychosis, and tactile hallucinations. He is picking at his skin and has poor dentition. What substance is most likely involved?

Psychiatry

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152

A college student crashes after heavy cocaine use. He is fatigued, hypersomnolent, depressed, and hungry. What is this phenomenon called?

Psychiatry

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153

What is the most life-threatening withdrawal among commonly abused substances?

Psychiatry

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154

A 45-year-old man with insomnia has been taking alprazolam for 1 year. He abruptly stops and presents with seizures and tremors. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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155

A 23-year-old woman uses logic and academic language to describe the death of her sister, without expressing any emotion. What defense mechanism is this?

Psychiatry

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156

A man is angry at his boss but instead yells at his children when he gets home. What defense mechanism is this?

Psychiatry

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157

A nurse angry at a physician forgets to pass on critical lab results. She denies doing it intentionally. What defense mechanism is this?

Psychiatry

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158

A patient praises a new doctor as "the only good one" and says all the others were terrible. What defense mechanism is being used?

Psychiatry

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159

A woman who is afraid of her sexual feelings becomes a celibate public speaker against premarital sex. What defense mechanism is this?

Psychiatry

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160

A woman who recently ended a long relationship starts volunteering at an animal shelter every day to “stay busy.” What defense mechanism is this?

Psychiatry

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161

A 27-year-old man says he feels detached from his body, like he's watching himself in a movie. He denies hallucinations and is aware this is not reality. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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162

A 32-year-old woman reports memory gaps and states that others tell her she behaves differently sometimes. She was abused in childhood. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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163

A man travels unexpectedly to another city and cannot recall his identity or how he got there. He is otherwise alert. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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164

A patient speaks rapidly, jumping from topic to topic. He appears euphoric, distractible, and has little sleep. What is the term for his speech pattern?

Psychiatry

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165

A 10-year-old has frequent angry outbursts, loses his temper often, and refuses to follow rules at school and home. Symptoms have persisted for 7 months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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166

A 14-year-old boy has been caught setting fires, torturing animals, and stealing. He shows no remorse. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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167

What is the age requirement for diagnosing antisocial personality disorder?

Psychiatry

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168

A 9-year-old boy has frequent, explosive temper outbursts. Between episodes, he remains irritable and angry for most of the day. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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169

What is the first-line treatment for all disruptive behavioral disorders?

Psychiatry

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170

A child with DMDD has minimal improvement after behavioral therapy. What is the next best step?

Psychiatry

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171

A 3-year-old child has daily temper tantrums when denied candy but returns to normal behavior within 15 minutes. Development is otherwise normal. What is the best next step?

Psychiatry

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172

What feature of temper tantrums is considered concerning?

Psychiatry

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173

A 4-year-old child loses consciousness after crying when frustrated. He stiffens and turns blue. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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174

Which of the following is required for informed consent?

Psychiatry

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175

A patient with schizophrenia refuses surgery for appendicitis. He understands the procedure, risks, and benefits. What is the next step?

Psychiatry

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176

Which of the following conditions mandates involuntary psychiatric hospitalization?

Psychiatry

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177

Which of the following is a criterion for involuntary admission?

Psychiatry

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178

A 15-year-old pregnant girl needs hospitalization for preeclampsia. Can she consent to treatment?

Psychiatry

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179

Which psychiatric emergency is most associated with violent behavior?

Psychiatry

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180

What is the primary ethical principle behind emergency treatment without consent?

Psychiatry

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181

A 30-year-old woman presents 2 weeks postpartum with persistent sadness, fatigue, and guilt. She has difficulty sleeping and admits fleeting thoughts of harming herself. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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182

A 28-year-old postpartum woman is found agitated and paranoid. She refuses to hold her baby and believes the baby is evil. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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183

A 26-year-old woman reports crying and irritability starting 4 days postpartum. She is bonding with her baby and has no suicidal thoughts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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184

Which treatment is appropriate for postpartum depression in a breastfeeding mother?

Psychiatry

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185

A woman presents after ingesting 30 tablets of amitriptyline. She is drowsy and ECG shows QRS >120 ms. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Psychiatry

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186

A man with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning has normal O2 saturation on pulse oximetry. What test confirms the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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187

A 16-year-old attempts suicide by ingesting acetaminophen. What is the best next step?

Psychiatry

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188

A farmer presents with bradycardia, salivation, and muscle twitching after pesticide exposure. What is the antidote?

Psychiatry

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189

A child eats several iron tablets and presents with vomiting, metabolic acidosis, and lethargy. What is the antidote?

Psychiatry

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190

A patient presents with miosis, respiratory depression, and stupor. What should be administered?

Psychiatry

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191

A 30-year-old woman with schizophrenia becomes pregnant. She is stable on risperidone. What is the most appropriate next step?

Psychiatry

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192

What is the major concern with using antipsychotics in the third trimester of pregnancy?

Psychiatry

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193

A pregnant woman with bipolar disorder requires antipsychotic treatment. Which of the following is considered safest in pregnancy?

Psychiatry

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194

A woman with schizophrenia becomes pregnant. She refuses medications due to fear of harming the baby. What is the best initial approach?

Psychiatry

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195

A pregnant woman with treatment-resistant schizophrenia is stable only on clozapine. What is the biggest concern if clozapine is continued?

Psychiatry

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196

Which antipsychotic carries the greatest risk for gestational diabetes and weight gain in pregnancy?

Psychiatry

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197

A newborn has hypotonia and tremors after maternal use of antipsychotics in the third trimester. What is the next best step?

Psychiatry

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198

A woman stable on antipsychotic therapy is planning pregnancy. What is the best approach to managing her medications?

Psychiatry

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199

A pregnant patient on antipsychotics is concerned about breastfeeding. What is the best advice?

Psychiatry

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200

What fetal complication is associated with untreated schizophrenia during pregnancy?

Psychiatry

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201

A 28-year-old combat veteran has frequent nightmares, avoids crowds, startles easily, and is emotionally detached. Symptoms began 4 months ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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202

A woman involved in a car accident has flashbacks, insomnia, and irritability for the past 2 weeks. What is the diagnosis?

Psychiatry

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203

A patient with PTSD has frequent nightmares and insomnia. Which medication is most helpful for this symptom?

Psychiatry

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204

What legal term refers to a person’s ability to understand court proceedings and assist in their defense?

Psychiatry

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205

Which of the following is a criterion for the legal insanity defense?

Psychiatry

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206

A patient expresses suicidal thoughts, has a plan, and access to means. What is the next best step?

Psychiatry

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207

A patient with severe bipolar mania is refusing treatment and is aggressive. What is the appropriate action?

Psychiatry

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208

What is the primary difference between capacity and competence?

Psychiatry

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209

A patient with schizophrenia refuses antipsychotic medication. He is not violent and understands his illness. What is the next step?

Psychiatry

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210

What is the most important step in evaluating a potentially suicidal patient?

Psychiatry

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1

A 68-year-old man with small cell lung cancer presents with confusion. Serum sodium is 122 mEq/L. Serum osmolality is low, urine sodium is 45 mEq/L, and urine osmolality is 400 mOsm/kg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Renal

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2

A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue and salt craving. Her sodium is 125 mEq/L, potassium is 5.8, and BP is 88/60 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Renal

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3

A 29-year-old marathon runner collapses after the race. She drank large volumes of water throughout. Labs: Na+ = 119, low serum osmolality, urine osmolality <100. Diagnosis?

Renal

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4

A 70-year-old man with pneumonia develops hyponatremia (Na+ = 120). He is alert, euvolemic, and has high urine osmolality. What is the mechanism of hyponatremia?

Renal

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5

A 60-year-old man is post-op and develops confusion. Labs show Na+ = 118, serum osmolality 265, urine osmolality 350. He is euvolemic. What is the first-line management?

Renal

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6

A patient with schizophrenia on olanzapine presents with lethargy. Labs show Na+ 121, low serum osmolality, urine Na 55, urine osmolality 450. Likely cause?

Renal

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7

A 55-year-old man with cirrhosis has Na+ = 126. Exam shows ascites and peripheral edema. Urine Na is low. What type of hyponatremia is this?

Renal

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8

A 26-year-old woman is found to have Na+ = 119 mEq/L during evaluation for fatigue. She recently started sertraline. What is the most appropriate management?

Renal

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9

Which of the following is the most dangerous complication of rapidly correcting chronic hyponatremia?

Renal

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10

A patient with severe hypovolemic hyponatremia (Na = 117) is confused and hypotensive. Best initial treatment?

Renal

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11

A 75-year-old man with dementia presents with altered mental status. He lives alone and has poor oral intake. Na+ = 158 mEq/L, serum osmolality is high. What is the most likely cause?

Renal

QBank

12

A 25-year-old man presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and Na+ = 150 mEq/L. Water deprivation test shows no change in urine osmolality. What is the diagnosis?

Renal

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13

A 60-year-old man with lithium therapy presents with persistent polyuria and hypernatremia. Desmopressin test shows minimal response. Diagnosis?

Renal

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14

What is the primary danger of rapidly correcting chronic hypernatremia?

Renal

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15

A patient presents with altered mental status, dry mucosa, and Na+ = 160 mEq/L. What is the initial fluid management?

Renal

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16

A patient has Na+ 155 mEq/L, is alert, euvolemic, and has urine osmolality 700 mOsm/kg. What is the likely cause of hypernatremia?

Renal

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17

Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing hypernatremia?

Renal

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18

A 40-year-old male with head trauma develops hypernatremia and copious dilute urine. What lab finding confirms central diabetes insipidus?

Renal

QBank

19

A 30-year-old woman presents with perioral numbness and carpal spasms. She recently had thyroid surgery. Labs show Ca²⁺ = 7.1 mg/dL. What is the most likely cause?

Renal

QBank

20

A patient with chronic kidney disease develops fatigue and pruritus. Ca²⁺ is 8.0 mg/dL, phosphate is high. PTH is elevated. Likely mechanism?

Renal

QBank

21

A 50-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has confusion and constipation. Ca²⁺ = 13.5 mg/dL. Next best step?

Renal

QBank

22

A man presents with kidney stones, abdominal pain, and Ca²⁺ = 11.2 mg/dL. PTH is high. What is the likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

23

A patient with hypocalcemia has prolonged QT on ECG. Which of the following signs may also be observed?

Renal

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24

A 45-year-old alcoholic is admitted with weakness. ECG shows U waves, flattened T waves. Serum K⁺ = 2.6 mEq/L. Best next step?

Renal

QBank

25

What is a common cause of hypokalemia with high urine potassium excretion?

Renal

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26

A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is started on insulin. Hours later, he develops muscle weakness. What is the likely electrolyte disturbance?

Renal

QBank

27

Which ECG change is characteristic of moderate to severe hyperkalemia?

Renal

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28

A 55-year-old man with CKD presents with confusion. Labs: K⁺ = 6.7 mEq/L. ECG shows peaked T waves. First-line management?

Renal

QBank

29

Which of the following drugs is least likely to cause hyperkalemia?

Renal

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30

A 70-year-old diabetic on an ACE inhibitor presents with muscle weakness. Serum K⁺ is 6.8. What is the next best step?

Renal

QBank

31

A 64-year-old man with COPD has pH 7.32, pCO₂ 60 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 30 mEq/L. What is the primary acid–base disorder?

Renal

QBank

32

A patient with severe vomiting has pH 7.52, HCO₃⁻ 36, and pCO₂ 50 mmHg. What is the primary disturbance?

Renal

QBank

33

A 25-year-old woman with diabetic ketoacidosis has pH 7.10, HCO₃⁻ 12, pCO₂ 25. What is the primary acid–base disorder?

Renal

QBank

34

A patient presents with diarrhea and dehydration. ABG shows pH 7.29, HCO₃⁻ 16, pCO₂ 31. What is the most likely acid–base abnormality?

Renal

QBank

35

A patient with aspirin overdose presents with tachypnea and confusion. ABG shows pH 7.38, pCO₂ 22, HCO₃⁻ 14. Diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

36

Which of the following is a cause of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?

Renal

QBank

37

A 32-year-old man has pH 7.50, pCO₂ 28 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 20 mEq/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

38

What is the expected compensation for acute respiratory acidosis?

Renal

QBank

39

A patient presents with metabolic acidosis and a high anion gap. Which of the following is NOT a typical cause?

Renal

QBank

40

A patient with prolonged vomiting develops metabolic alkalosis. What is the kidney’s expected response?

Renal

QBank

41

A 75-year-old man presents with confusion and decreased urine output. BUN:Cr ratio is 30:1. Urine sodium is 8 mEq/L. FeNa is <1%. What is the likely cause of his AKI?

Renal

QBank

42

A 50-year-old man with sepsis is on IV antibiotics. Creatinine rises from 1.0 to 3.5 mg/dL. FeNa = 3%, urine shows muddy brown casts. Most likely cause?

Renal

QBank

43

A 40-year-old woman presents with rash, fever, and rising creatinine 1 week after starting TMP-SMX. UA shows WBCs and eosinophils. Likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

44

Which of the following medications is most likely to cause acute interstitial nephritis?

Renal

QBank

45

A 60-year-old man with BPH presents with anuria. Bladder scan shows 800 mL of retained urine. Next best step?

Renal

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46

Which lab finding is most consistent with acute tubular necrosis?

Renal

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47

What is the most common cause of AKI in hospitalized patients?

Renal

QBank

48

A 22-year-old athlete collapses from heatstroke. His urine is reddish-brown but has no RBCs. What is the likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

49

Which of the following best distinguishes pre-renal from ATN?

Renal

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50

A man with AKI is found to have a BUN of 80 and creatinine of 4.0. What is the BUN:Cr ratio and what does it suggest?

Renal

QBank

51

What is the earliest sign of post-obstructive AKI after catheterization?

Renal

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52

Which urinalysis finding is most suggestive of acute glomerulonephritis rather than ATN?

Renal

QBank

53

A patient with multiple myeloma develops AKI. Most likely mechanism?

Renal

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54

In which condition is urine osmolality most concentrated?

Renal

QBank

55

What is the best initial test to evaluate for post-renal AKI?

Renal

QBank

56

What is the goal of management in acute tubular necrosis?

Renal

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57

A 10-year-old boy presents with cola-colored urine 2 weeks after a sore throat. BP is elevated. Labs show low C3 and proteinuria. Diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

58

A 25-year-old man has recurrent episodes of gross hematuria after upper respiratory infections. Complement levels are normal. Likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

59

A 30-year-old man presents with hematuria and hemoptysis. Anti-GBM antibodies are positive. What is the likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

60

A 24-year-old man has AKI, purpuric rash, and hematuria. Labs: +ANCA, negative ANA, no anti-GBM. Likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

61

A patient with SLE presents with proteinuria and RBC casts. What is the best next step?

Renal

QBank

62

A 15-year-old boy with hematuria and sensorineural hearing loss is diagnosed with hereditary nephritis. What is the likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

63

Which of the following findings is most consistent with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)?

Renal

QBank

64

A patient has hematuria and nephritic-range proteinuria. Renal biopsy shows “tram-track” appearance and subendothelial deposits. What is the diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

65

What finding best distinguishes nephritic syndrome from nephrotic syndrome?

Renal

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66

A 4-year-old child presents with periorbital edema and proteinuria. Labs show albumin 1.8 g/dL, cholesterol 310 mg/dL. Most likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

67

What is the pathologic hallmark of minimal change disease on electron microscopy?

Renal

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68

A 6-year-old with minimal change disease is started on prednisone. What is the expected outcome?

Renal

QBank

69

Which of the following is NOT a classic feature of nephrotic syndrome?

Renal

QBank

70

A patient with long-standing diabetes develops edema and nephrotic-range proteinuria. Which renal lesion is characteristic?

Renal

QBank

71

Which condition is most associated with renal vein thrombosis in nephrotic syndrome?

Renal

QBank

72

A 32-year-old woman with SLE has new-onset hypertension and proteinuria. What is the next best step?

Renal

QBank

73

What class of lupus nephritis shows mesangial immune deposits and minimal renal dysfunction?

Renal

QBank

74

Which lupus nephritis class is associated with the worst renal prognosis?

Renal

QBank

75

Which antibody is most associated with lupus nephritis activity?

Renal

QBank

76

Which medication is commonly used as steroid-sparing agent in lupus nephritis?

Renal

QBank

77

A 40-year-old man presents with nephrotic-range proteinuria. Renal biopsy shows thickened capillary walls and subepithelial spikes. Likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

78

Which lab finding is typically seen in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

Renal

QBank

79

A biopsy in FSGS would show which of the following findings?

Renal

QBank

80

Which condition is most associated with nephrotic syndrome in HIV patients?

Renal

QBank

81

A 65-year-old man presents with hematuria, flank pain, and a palpable mass. CT abdomen reveals a solid renal mass. Most likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

82

A patient with RCC is found to have hypercalcemia. What is the likely mechanism?

Renal

QBank

83

Which of the following is a known paraneoplastic syndrome of RCC?

Renal

QBank

84

What is the first-line imaging modality for suspected renal cell carcinoma?

Renal

QBank

85

Which genetic mutation is most commonly associated with clear cell RCC?

Renal

QBank

86

What is the most common type of renal cancer in adults?

Renal

QBank

87

A child presents with an abdominal mass and hypertension. US shows a large renal mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

88

Which gene mutation is most commonly associated with Wilms tumor?

Renal

QBank

89

Which of the following is NOT part of the WAGR syndrome?

Renal

QBank

90

What histologic feature is characteristic of Wilms tumor?

Renal

QBank

91

A neonate with ambiguous genitalia, aniridia, and large abdominal mass is suspected to have WAGR syndrome. What genetic test is indicated?

Renal

QBank

92

What is the best initial imaging for a suspected Wilms tumor in a child?

Renal

QBank

93

Which is the most common site of metastasis in Wilms tumor?

Renal

QBank

94

Which of the following is TRUE regarding treatment of Wilms tumor?

Renal

QBank

95

A patient with von Hippel–Lindau disease is at increased risk of which renal tumor?

Renal

QBank

96

Which renal tumor is most commonly associated with Tuberous Sclerosis?

Renal

QBank

97

A patient with hematuria and a central renal mass involving the renal pelvis is likely to have which cancer?

Renal

QBank

98

What histology is typical of oncocytoma, a benign renal mass?

Renal

QBank

99

A renal tumor in a child shows WT1 mutation and aniridia. What additional screening is necessary?

Renal

QBank

100

Which of the following pediatric renal tumors is most radiosensitive?

Renal

QBank

101

A 58-year-old man with a 10-year history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes and longstanding hypertension presents with fatigue, pruritus, and decreased urine output. Labs reveal BUN 78 mg/dL, creatinine 6.5 mg/dL, GFR 8 mL/min/1.73m², and normocytic anemia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Renal

QBank

102

A 63-year-old woman with ESRD on hemodialysis presents with severe itching and difficulty sleeping. No rash is present. Labs: calcium 10.2 mg/dL, phosphate 6.1 mg/dL, PTH 780 pg/mL. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

Renal

QBank

103

A 55-year-old man with ESRD on dialysis complains of bone pain and muscle weakness. Labs show low calcium, elevated phosphate, and PTH 1200 pg/mL. X-ray reveals subperiosteal bone resorption. Diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

104

A 47-year-old female with ESRD on hemodialysis presents with fatigue and pallor. Labs show Hb 8.5 g/dL, MCV 89, ferritin 120 ng/mL, and low reticulocyte count. What is the best treatment?

Renal

QBank

105

A dialysis patient is found to have bilateral shoulder pain and limited movement. X-ray shows cystic lesions and erosions in the humeral head. Labs: PTH 900. What is the cause?

Renal

QBank

106

A 60-year-old diabetic with ESRD presents with dyspnea. He missed his last 2 dialysis sessions. Exam shows crackles, elevated JVP, and pitting edema. What is the most immediate next step?

Renal

QBank

107

A 72-year-old man with ESRD is undergoing AV fistula creation. What vessel combination is most commonly used?

Renal

QBank

108

A patient on chronic dialysis reports nausea and confusion. ECG shows peaked T waves and wide QRS. What is the best initial management?

Renal

QBank

109

A 68-year-old man with ESRD presents with uremic encephalopathy. He is confused, asterixis is present, and BUN is 110. What finding on EEG supports the diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

110

A 65-year-old woman on dialysis is found to have a calcium-phosphate product of 80. What is the major long-term complication if left untreated?

Renal

QBank

111

A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and hypertension is diagnosed with CKD stage 3. GFR is 48 mL/min/1.73 m². What is the most appropriate next step in management to slow disease progression?

Renal

QBank

112

A patient with CKD stage 4 has phosphate 6.0 mg/dL and PTH 500 pg/mL. Which of the following is the best first-line therapy?

Renal

QBank

113

A 55-year-old man with CKD stage 3 is found to have microalbuminuria. BP is 140/86 mmHg. What is the best target blood pressure in this patient?

Renal

QBank

114

A 67-year-old woman with CKD has anemia with Hb 9.2 g/dL and ferritin 80 ng/mL. What is the next best step?

Renal

QBank

115

Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate for a patient with CKD stage 4?

Renal

QBank

116

A 70-year-old male with CKD stage 5 has rising PTH and decreasing bone mineral density. Calcium and phosphate levels are normal. What medication helps reduce PTH without increasing calcium?

Renal

QBank

117

In CKD stage 4, which of the following is the most accurate marker to monitor disease progression?

Renal

QBank

118

A patient with CKD and GFR of 28 is started on NSAIDs for back pain. Two weeks later, creatinine rises sharply. Most likely cause?

Renal

QBank

119

A patient with CKD stage 4 has metabolic acidosis (HCO₃⁻ = 17 mEq/L). What is the preferred treatment?

Renal

QBank

120

A patient with CKD and hypertension is on ACE inhibitor. Creatinine rises by 25% after 2 weeks. What is the next best step?

Renal

QBank

121

A 67-year-old man presents with nocturia, weak urinary stream, and hesitancy. DRE reveals a smooth, enlarged prostate. PSA is 2.1 ng/mL. Most likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

122

Which of the following medications provides the fastest symptom relief in BPH?

Renal

QBank

123

A patient with BPH is started on finasteride. What is the expected effect after 6 months?

Renal

QBank

124

Which of the following BPH medications is most associated with retrograde ejaculation?

Renal

QBank

125

A 75-year-old man with BPH presents with acute urinary retention. What is the first-line management?

Renal

QBank

126

Which of the following is the most common surgical treatment for BPH refractory to medical therapy?

Renal

QBank

127

A 66-year-old man with BPH on tamsulosin and finasteride has blood pressure 90/60 mmHg and postural dizziness. Likely cause?

Renal

QBank

128

A patient with BPH and ED is looking for a single medication for both. Best option?

Renal

QBank

129

What is the mechanism of finasteride in treating BPH?

Renal

QBank

130

Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgical intervention in BPH?

Renal

QBank

131

A 16-year-old boy presents with sudden onset left testicular pain, nausea, and vomiting. Cremasteric reflex is absent. What is the next best step?

Renal

QBank

132

A 22-year-old man presents with scrotal pain, dysuria, and fever. The pain is relieved by scrotal elevation. Likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

133

A 30-year-old man presents with a painless scrotal mass that feels like a “bag of worms.” It enlarges with standing. Diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

134

A 3-month-old male has a non-palpable right testis. Ultrasound shows no intra-abdominal or inguinal testicle. Best next step?

Renal

QBank

135

A newborn boy has a fluid-filled scrotal mass that transilluminates. It changes size during the day. Likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

136

Which testicular tumor is most common in men aged 15–35 and presents with a painless firm mass?

Renal

QBank

137

A 28-year-old male is found to have an elevated AFP and β-hCG, with a testicular mass. Most likely tumor?

Renal

QBank

138

A 1-year-old boy has a painless, firm, unilateral scrotal mass. AFP is elevated. Diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

139

A 5-year-old boy presents with weak stream and recurrent UTIs. Voiding cystourethrogram shows posterior urethral valves. Best initial treatment?

Renal

QBank

140

What congenital anomaly is most associated with recurrent pyelonephritis and renal scarring in children?

Renal

QBank

141

A newborn has a midline abdominal mass that does not pass urine. Prenatal ultrasound showed oligohydramnios. Diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

142

A 30-year-old man has difficulty maintaining erection during intercourse but has normal nocturnal erections. What is the most likely cause?

Renal

QBank

143

A man with diabetes and ED has absent nocturnal erections. Which test helps evaluate for vascular vs. neurogenic cause?

Renal

QBank

144

Which medication is first-line therapy for erectile dysfunction?

Renal

QBank

145

A patient on nitrates for angina is started on sildenafil. He develops hypotension. What is the mechanism?

Renal

QBank

146

Peyronie disease is characterized by which of the following features?

Renal

QBank

147

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to PDE-5 inhibitor therapy?

Renal

QBank

148

A 65-year-old man with ED is started on tadalafil. He returns with back pain and dyspepsia. What is the likely cause?

Renal

QBank

149

A man with spinal cord injury and ED is not responding to PDE-5 inhibitors. What is the next step?

Renal

QBank

150

What is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for initiating erection?

Renal

QBank

151

A 35-year-old man presents with sudden-onset flank pain radiating to the groin. He is restless and unable to lie still. Urinalysis shows microscopic hematuria. Most likely diagnosis?

Renal

QBank

152

A non-contrast CT of the abdomen confirms a 4 mm stone in the distal ureter. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Renal

QBank

153

A patient with recurrent calcium oxalate stones is advised to decrease dietary oxalate. Which food should they avoid?

Renal

QBank

154

A 45-year-old man with uric acid stones is advised to alkalinize his urine. Which agent is typically used?

Renal

QBank

155

Which type of kidney stone is most commonly associated with infection by urease-producing organisms like Proteus?

Renal

QBank

156

A 25-year-old man has a family history of kidney stones. His urinalysis shows hexagonal crystals. Diagnosis?

Renal

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157

A patient with a 9 mm mid-ureteric stone develops fever and chills. What is the next best step?

Renal

QBank

158

What is the most common type of kidney stone in general population?

Renal

QBank

159

What is the most sensitive imaging for diagnosing kidney stones?

Renal

QBank

160

A 30-year-old woman with a calcium oxalate stone is found to have low urinary citrate. Which dietary recommendation can help prevent recurrence?

Renal

QBank

161

A 58-year-old postmenopausal woman complains of involuntary urine leakage when she coughs, sneezes, or laughs. She denies urgency or nocturia. What is the most likely type of incontinence?

Renal

QBank

162

A 70-year-old woman has sudden strong urges to urinate and often can’t reach the toilet in time. She voids small amounts frequently and wakes up several times at night to urinate. What is the most likely cause?

Renal

QBank

163

A 65-year-old man with diabetes presents with constant dribbling of urine, incomplete bladder emptying, and elevated post-void residual volume. What type of incontinence is this?

Renal

QBank

164

A patient with Alzheimer’s disease has episodes of incontinence because he cannot locate the bathroom in time. Which type of incontinence is this?

Renal

QBank

165

A 72-year-old woman with urge incontinence is started on oxybutynin. One week later, she reports dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision. What is the cause of her symptoms?

Renal

QBank

166

A 68-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis has urgency, frequency, and occasional incontinence. Urodynamic testing shows detrusor overactivity. What is the next best treatment?

Renal

QBank

167

A 70-year-old woman with urge incontinence is started on mirabegron. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

Renal

QBank

168

What is the most appropriate first-line management of stress urinary incontinence in women?

Renal

QBank

169

A 55-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease complains of urgency and incontinence. What type of incontinence is most likely?

Renal

QBank

170

A 50-year-old woman with urgency and frequency is diagnosed with detrusor overactivity. Anticholinergic therapy fails. What is an effective next-line treatment?

Renal

QBank

1

A 9-year-old boy presents with recurrent cough and wheezing, especially at night and during cold exposure. Spirometry shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 65%, which improves by 15% after inhaled albuterol. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

2

A 54-year-old man with a 30-pack-year smoking history presents with chronic cough and dyspnea. He is overweight, cyanotic, and has ankle edema. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

3

A 66-year-old man with emphysema presents for routine follow-up. He has no dyspnea at rest, but O2 saturation is 87% on room air. What is the most appropriate next step?

Respiratory

QBank

4

A 40-year-old non-smoker presents with chronic dyspnea and dry cough. CXR shows a reticulonodular pattern, and CT reveals honeycombing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

5

A 26-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents with wheezing and cough after taking aspirin. She also reports recurrent nasal polyps. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

6

A 65-year-old man with COPD presents with worsening dyspnea, increased sputum purulence, and productive cough for 4 days. What is the best next step in management?

Respiratory

QBank

7

A 70-year-old smoker with known COPD presents with exertional dyspnea. Spirometry shows FEV1/FVC ratio <70% and FEV1 = 50% of predicted. What is the GOLD classification?

Respiratory

QBank

8

A patient with COPD is started on tiotropium. What class of drug is this?

Respiratory

QBank

9

A 69-year-old man with COPD is hospitalized for respiratory failure. ABG shows pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 60 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 29. What type of acid-base disturbance is this?

Respiratory

QBank

10

A 72-year-old with severe COPD requires home oxygen. What oxygen saturation should be targeted?

Respiratory

QBank

11

Which of the following is the strongest intervention for improving survival in a patient with COPD?

Respiratory

QBank

12

A 63-year-old man with COPD has frequent exacerbations despite tiotropium. What is the next best step in management?

Respiratory

QBank

13

Which vaccination is most important for a patient with COPD?

Respiratory

QBank

14

Which of the following findings is consistent with emphysema?

Respiratory

QBank

15

What is the mechanism of action of ipratropium in COPD?

Respiratory

QBank

16

A 68-year-old man with a long smoking history presents with progressive dyspnea. Physical exam reveals a barrel-shaped chest and pursed-lip breathing. Which pulmonary function test finding is most characteristic of emphysema?

Respiratory

QBank

17

What is the primary pathophysiological change in emphysema leading to hypoxia?

Respiratory

QBank

18

A 70-year-old patient with COPD develops right heart failure. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Respiratory

QBank

19

Which type of hypoxia is seen in emphysema?

Respiratory

QBank

20

Which of the following causes a right shift in the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve?

Respiratory

QBank

21

A left shift of the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve results in:

Respiratory

QBank

22

What is the cause of increased compliance in emphysema?

Respiratory

QBank

23

What is the mechanism of hypoxemia in emphysema?

Respiratory

QBank

24

What is a major clinical difference between emphysema and chronic bronchitis?

Respiratory

QBank

25

What is the role of α1-antitrypsin in emphysema?

Respiratory

QBank

26

A 65-year-old smoker presents with chronic productive cough for the past 4 months each year for 3 years. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

27

Which histological finding is most characteristic of chronic bronchitis?

Respiratory

QBank

28

What is the Reid index threshold diagnostic of chronic bronchitis?

Respiratory

QBank

29

A 60-year-old man with chronic bronchitis has persistent hypoxemia. What is the mechanism of cyanosis in this patient?

Respiratory

QBank

30

Which of the following best describes chronic bronchitis?

Respiratory

QBank

31

Which feature distinguishes chronic bronchitis from emphysema?

Respiratory

QBank

32

What finding is typically normal in a patient with chronic bronchitis?

Respiratory

QBank

33

A patient with chronic bronchitis develops secondary polycythemia. What is the cause?

Respiratory

QBank

34

What is the most appropriate pharmacologic treatment for stable chronic bronchitis with persistent symptoms?

Respiratory

QBank

35

Why are patients with chronic bronchitis at increased risk of infection?

Respiratory

QBank

36

A 55-year-old man presents with fever, productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain. Chest X-ray shows right lower lobe consolidation. What is the most likely pathogen?

Respiratory

QBank

37

A 25-year-old college student presents with dry cough, low-grade fever, and malaise for 1 week. Chest X-ray shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates. What is the most likely cause?

Respiratory

QBank

38

A 69-year-old man with Alzheimer’s develops pneumonia. Sputum shows anaerobic organisms. What is the most likely cause?

Respiratory

QBank

39

A 60-year-old patient presents with CAP and hyponatremia. He also reports diarrhea and confusion. What is the likely pathogen?

Respiratory

QBank

40

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in COPD patients?

Respiratory

QBank

41

A 70-year-old man with a history of alcohol use presents with cough and production of thick, mucoid, currant jelly sputum. Which organism is likely?

Respiratory

QBank

42

Which of the following findings indicates a need for ICU admission in pneumonia?

Respiratory

QBank

43

A patient being treated for pneumonia suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. Chest X-ray shows a large air-fluid level. What is the most likely complication?

Respiratory

QBank

44

What is the first-line treatment for outpatient, low-risk community-acquired pneumonia?

Respiratory

QBank

45

Which pneumonia pathogen is most associated with post-influenza secondary infection?

Respiratory

QBank

46

Which pneumonia-causing organism is most commonly seen in cystic fibrosis?

Respiratory

QBank

47

Which scoring system is used to assess pneumonia severity and hospitalization need?

Respiratory

QBank

48

What is the most common viral cause of pneumonia in adults?

Respiratory

QBank

49

Which pneumonia type is often seen in ventilated ICU patients and is caused by gram-negative bacilli?

Respiratory

QBank

50

What is the first step in evaluating a patient with suspected pneumonia?

Respiratory

QBank

51

A 14-year-old boy with a history of asthma presents with wheezing and cough after exercise. What is the best medication to prevent these symptoms?

Respiratory

QBank

52

A 24-year-old woman with asthma uses her albuterol inhaler daily and wakes up at night with coughing twice a week. What is the next step in management?

Respiratory

QBank

53

What is the most specific finding of asthma on spirometry?

Respiratory

QBank

54

A 30-year-old man presents with a severe asthma exacerbation. He is using accessory muscles and is unable to speak full sentences. What is the next step?

Respiratory

QBank

55

Which of the following is a side effect of chronic inhaled corticosteroid use in asthma?

Respiratory

QBank

56

A 12-year-old girl with asthma is exposed to cats and dust daily. Her symptoms worsen at night. What is the next best step?

Respiratory

QBank

57

What immune cell is primarily responsible for airway inflammation in asthma?

Respiratory

QBank

58

Which of the following medications is never used alone in asthma treatment?

Respiratory

QBank

59

A 10-year-old with asthma has poor response to ICS and LABA. His serum IgE is elevated. What is the next best option?

Respiratory

QBank

60

What is a characteristic finding on peak expiratory flow monitoring in asthma?

Respiratory

QBank

61

A 68-year-old man presents with chronic progressive dyspnea and dry cough. He has fine bibasilar crackles. HRCT shows subpleural reticulations and honeycombing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

62

Which of the following pulmonary function test (PFT) findings is most consistent with interstitial lung disease?

Respiratory

QBank

63

What histopathologic pattern is most characteristic of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

Respiratory

QBank

64

A 55-year-old woman presents with dry cough and exertional dyspnea. CT shows ground-glass opacities. She is a bird breeder. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

65

Which occupational exposure is associated with upper lobe fibrosis and “eggshell” calcifications of lymph nodes?

Respiratory

QBank

66

A 40-year-old African-American woman presents with fatigue, cough, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on chest X-ray. ACE levels are elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

67

Which of the following is a classic extrapulmonary manifestation of sarcoidosis?

Respiratory

QBank

68

Which lab abnormality is associated with sarcoidosis?

Respiratory

QBank

69

A 38-year-old patient with asthma presents with worsening wheeze and hemoptysis. Imaging shows central bronchiectasis. Skin test is positive for Aspergillus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

70

What is the mechanism of hypoxemia in interstitial lung disease?

Respiratory

QBank

71

A 45-year-old man with pancreatitis develops sudden hypoxia and bilateral infiltrates on CXR. PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio is 160. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

72

What is the hallmark pathophysiologic feature of ARDS?

Respiratory

QBank

73

Which of the following best describes the oxygenation defect in ARDS?

Respiratory

QBank

74

What is the first-line ventilator strategy in ARDS?

Respiratory

QBank

75

A patient on mechanical ventilation for ARDS develops hypotension and decreased urine output. What is the likely cause?

Respiratory

QBank

76

A patient with ARDS has persistent hypoxemia despite high FiO₂. What non-invasive adjunct can improve oxygenation?

Respiratory

QBank

77

Which of the following conditions is a non-pulmonary trigger for ARDS?

Respiratory

QBank

78

In ARDS, which lab finding supports the presence of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

Respiratory

QBank

79

What is the purpose of using PEEP in mechanical ventilation for ARDS?

Respiratory

QBank

80

What is the mortality rate associated with severe ARDS?

Respiratory

QBank

81

A 70-kg man with ARDS is intubated. What is the appropriate tidal volume setting for lung-protective ventilation?

Respiratory

QBank

82

What ventilator setting helps assess the risk of barotrauma in mechanically ventilated patients?

Respiratory

QBank

83

A ventilated patient’s ABG shows: pH 7.25, PaCO₂ 60 mmHg. What adjustment should be made?

Respiratory

QBank

84

A patient with ARDS on high PEEP develops sudden hypotension and absent breath sounds on one side. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

85

What is auto-PEEP in mechanical ventilation?

Respiratory

QBank

86

What is the primary indication for initiating mechanical ventilation?

Respiratory

QBank

87

A 65-year-old with COPD on ventilation shows difficulty initiating breaths. What mode helps synchronize patient effort?

Respiratory

QBank

88

A patient on mechanical ventilation becomes progressively alkalotic (pH 7.52). What adjustment is most appropriate?

Respiratory

QBank

89

In mechanical ventilation, which setting primarily affects oxygenation?

Respiratory

QBank

90

What is the best indicator of adequate ventilation in a mechanically ventilated patient?

Respiratory

QBank

91

A 45-year-old woman with systemic sclerosis presents with exertional dyspnea. Echocardiogram shows elevated pulmonary artery pressures. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

92

Which of the following findings suggests pulmonary hypertension on echocardiogram?

Respiratory

QBank

93

What is the most definitive test to diagnose pulmonary hypertension?

Respiratory

QBank

94

Which is a common physical exam finding in pulmonary hypertension?

Respiratory

QBank

95

A 58-year-old man with COPD presents with leg swelling, JVD, and hepatomegaly. CXR shows hyperinflated lungs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

96

What is the most common ECG finding in pulmonary embolism?

Respiratory

QBank

97

A 34-year-old woman presents with sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. CXR is normal. What is the next best step?

Respiratory

QBank

98

What lab test is used to rule out pulmonary embolism in low-risk patients?

Respiratory

QBank

99

A patient with confirmed PE is hemodynamically unstable. What is the next best step?

Respiratory

QBank

100

What is the most common source of emboli in pulmonary embolism?

Respiratory

QBank

101

A tall, thin 20-year-old man presents with sudden chest pain and shortness of breath. CXR shows absence of lung markings on the right side. What is the diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

102

A trauma patient has left chest bruising and develops worsening oxygenation. CXR shows patchy infiltrates without effusion. What is the diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

103

A patient with chest trauma has tracheal deviation away from the left side, absent breath sounds, and hypotension. What is the best next step?

Respiratory

QBank

104

What is the initial management of a stable small (<2 cm) primary pneumothorax in a healthy individual?

Respiratory

QBank

105

A trauma patient develops dyspnea. Chest imaging shows white-out of the left hemithorax with mediastinal shift. What is the most likely cause?

Respiratory

QBank

106

Which pleural fluid characteristic suggests an exudative effusion?

Respiratory

QBank

107

Which condition is most commonly associated with transudative pleural effusion?

Respiratory

QBank

108

What is the next best step for evaluating an undiagnosed pleural effusion seen on chest X-ray?

Respiratory

QBank

109

A 65-year-old man has pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. Exam reveals dullness to percussion and decreased breath sounds. What is the next best investigation?

Respiratory

QBank

110

Which of the following is an indication for chest tube drainage in a parapneumonic pleural effusion?

Respiratory

QBank

111

Which fluid characteristic is most consistent with TB pleural effusion?

Respiratory

QBank

112

Which is a common cause of bloody pleural effusion?

Respiratory

QBank

113

Which imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting small pneumothorax?

Respiratory

QBank

114

A patient with recent pneumonia develops loculated pleural fluid and fever. Which is the most appropriate treatment?

Respiratory

QBank

115

What is the first-line imaging for evaluating pleural effusion bedside in critically ill patients?

Respiratory

QBank

116

A 65-year-old smoker presents with weight loss, cough, and hemoptysis. CXR shows a central lung mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

117

A 70-year-old nonsmoker presents with chronic cough. CT chest reveals a peripheral mass. Biopsy shows glandular formation. What is the most likely cancer?

Respiratory

QBank

118

Which lung cancer subtype is most associated with paraneoplastic SIADH?

Respiratory

QBank

119

A lung tumor biopsy reveals keratin pearls and intercellular bridges. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

120

What paraneoplastic syndrome is associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the lung?

Respiratory

QBank

121

What is the initial diagnostic step for a suspected lung mass on chest X-ray?

Respiratory

QBank

122

A patient with small cell lung cancer develops muscle weakness that improves with use. What is the cause?

Respiratory

QBank

123

What is the most common site of distant metastasis in lung cancer?

Respiratory

QBank

124

A 65-year-old man presents with facial swelling, dyspnea, and distended neck veins. CXR shows a central lung mass. What is the most likely cause?

Respiratory

QBank

125

A patient is diagnosed with stage IA non-small cell lung cancer. What is the preferred treatment?

Respiratory

QBank

126

What is the typical histology of a carcinoid tumor of the lung?

Respiratory

QBank

127

Which of the following is used for staging and identifying metastatic spread in lung cancer?

Respiratory

QBank

128

What mutation is most commonly seen in lung adenocarcinoma of nonsmokers?

Respiratory

QBank

129

Which lung cancer has the worst prognosis?

Respiratory

QBank

130

A biopsy shows mucin-producing cells forming acinar structures in a peripheral lung mass. What is the diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

131

A 28-year-old woman presents with chest pressure. Chest CT shows an anterior mediastinal mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

132

A 35-year-old man has an incidental posterior mediastinal mass on imaging. What is the most likely cause?

Respiratory

QBank

133

What is the most common middle mediastinal mass?

Respiratory

QBank

134

What paraneoplastic condition is commonly associated with thymoma?

Respiratory

QBank

135

A patient with a mediastinal mass presents with stridor and dyspnea worse when supine. What is the next best step?

Respiratory

QBank

136

A 52-year-old man complains of daytime fatigue and loud snoring. He frequently wakes up gasping at night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

137

What is the gold standard test to confirm obstructive sleep apnea?

Respiratory

QBank

138

A patient with severe OSA has daytime hypercapnia and hypoxia. What long-term therapy is indicated?

Respiratory

QBank

139

Which condition is most commonly associated with central sleep apnea?

Respiratory

QBank

140

A 65-year-old man with chronic OSA refuses CPAP. What is an alternative intervention for moderate OSA?

Respiratory

QBank

141

A patient has a paralyzed right hemidiaphragm post cardiac surgery. What is the most likely cause?

Respiratory

QBank

142

What is the function of the diaphragm during normal breathing?

Respiratory

QBank

143

What imaging modality confirms diaphragmatic paralysis?

Respiratory

QBank

144

Which condition may cause bilateral diaphragmatic weakness?

Respiratory

QBank

145

What is a key physical sign of unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis?

Respiratory

QBank

146

A 58-year-old male with progressive dyspnea has a CT showing reticulonodular infiltrates and honeycombing. PFTs show ↓TLC, ↑FEV1/FVC. What is the likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

147

Which of the following is a classic finding in restrictive lung disease?

Respiratory

QBank

148

A 55-year-old male works in construction. CXR shows upper lobe nodules and "eggshell" calcification of hilar nodes. Diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

149

A shipyard worker presents with progressive dyspnea. CXR shows pleural plaques. What is the likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

150

What is the characteristic histologic finding in asbestosis?

Respiratory

QBank

151

Which occupation is most associated with berylliosis?

Respiratory

QBank

152

A 30-year-old HIV+ patient with CD4 = 80 presents with dry cough, dyspnea, and hypoxia. CXR shows bilateral ground-glass opacities. Diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

153

What is the treatment of choice for PCP pneumonia with hypoxia?

Respiratory

QBank

154

Which stain is used to visualize Pneumocystis jiroveci?

Respiratory

QBank

155

A patient with asthma develops worsening wheezing, eosinophilia, and central bronchiectasis. Skin test is positive for Aspergillus. Diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

156

A 12-year-old boy has recurrent nasal polyps and asthma. He also reports greasy stools. What test should be ordered?

Respiratory

QBank

157

Which drug class is associated with development of nasal polyps?

Respiratory

QBank

158

A patient with nasal polyps has persistent symptoms despite steroids. What is the next best step?

Respiratory

QBank

159

What histologic finding is typical in nasal polyps?

Respiratory

QBank

160

A patient with AERD presents with asthma, nasal polyps, and chronic sinusitis. What is the underlying mechanism?

Respiratory

QBank

161

A 2-month-old infant presents with inspiratory stridor that worsens when supine. Symptoms improve when prone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

162

A 3-year-old with a barking cough, stridor, and hoarseness presents during fall. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

163

What is the best treatment for moderate croup with stridor at rest?

Respiratory

QBank

164

A 4-year-old is drooling, sitting forward, febrile, and has stridor. What is the next best step?

Respiratory

QBank

165

A 2-year-old swallows a peanut and suddenly coughs. Breath sounds are diminished on the right. What is the diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

166

Which of the following is the most reliable method to confirm endotracheal tube placement?

Respiratory

QBank

167

What is the first maneuver in a "can’t intubate, can’t ventilate" emergency?

Respiratory

QBank

168

A COPD patient is given high-dose oxygen and becomes lethargic. What is the explanation?

Respiratory

QBank

169

Which bronchodilator acts by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and has a narrow therapeutic index?

Respiratory

QBank

170

Which inhaler is best for acute asthma relief?

Respiratory

QBank

171

What is the mechanism of action of ipratropium?

Respiratory

QBank

172

A patient develops oral thrush after inhaler use. What’s the most likely cause?

Respiratory

QBank

173

Which drug blocks leukotriene receptors and is used in asthma/allergic rhinitis?

Respiratory

QBank

174

Which asthma medication prevents mast cell degranulation?

Respiratory

QBank

175

What is a common side effect of beta-agonist therapy?

Respiratory

QBank

176

What is the mechanism of action of omalizumab?

Respiratory

QBank

177

A COPD patient uses tiotropium daily. What class of drug is it?

Respiratory

QBank

178

What combination is considered first-line for persistent asthma?

Respiratory

QBank

179

What inhaler device delivers dry powdered medication activated by patient’s inhalation?

Respiratory

QBank

180

Which biologic targets IL-5 in eosinophilic asthma?

Respiratory

QBank

181

A 40-year-old man presents with chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats. CXR shows upper lobe cavitary lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank

182

What is the diagnostic gold standard for active pulmonary TB?

Respiratory

QBank

183

A patient with TB has LFTs showing transaminitis. Which drug is most likely responsible?

Respiratory

QBank

184

What is the classic side effect of ethambutol?

Respiratory

QBank

185

Which drug is added in TB therapy specifically to reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy?

Respiratory

QBank

186

What spirometry pattern indicates obstructive lung disease?

Respiratory

QBank

187

What is the hallmark of restrictive lung disease on PFTs?

Respiratory

QBank

188

Which lung volume remains increased in air trapping diseases like COPD?

Respiratory

QBank

189

Which of the following causes a decrease in DLCO?

Respiratory

QBank

190

In which condition is DLCO increased?

Respiratory

QBank

191

What causes the FVC to decrease while the FEV1/FVC ratio remains normal or increased?

Respiratory

QBank

192

Which of the following is a reversible obstructive lung disease?

Respiratory

QBank

193

Which test is used to assess airway hyperresponsiveness in asthma?

Respiratory

QBank

194

A flattened diaphragm on CXR suggests which condition?

Respiratory

QBank

195

Which condition shows obstruction with decreased DLCO?

Respiratory

QBank

196

Which spirometry pattern is seen in a fixed upper airway obstruction?

Respiratory

QBank

197

Which test distinguishes between extrathoracic and intrathoracic airway obstruction?

Respiratory

QBank

198

A 25-year-old has exercise-induced bronchospasm. What is the best preventive therapy?

Respiratory

QBank

199

What is the primary function of surfactant in the lungs?

Respiratory

QBank

200

A premature infant develops respiratory distress due to surfactant deficiency. What is the diagnosis?

Respiratory

QBank